I agree, you've completely boiled down and simplified your argument here:
* Argument from authority ("scientists")
* Argument of some conspiracy ("afraid to say in public")
I don't adhere to any conspiracy theory at all. It is AD HOC reality. Those that oppose relativity don't get or keep good jobs, regardless of their education and/or experience before opposing relativity.
Facts are not a conspiracy. Many many good scientists reputations have been slandered just for speaking out. It has to do with the selfrightous attitude of relativists, not some conspiracy.
Here is where your argument is muddled, you oscillate between a hard disagreement, and a soft disagreement. In your soft disagreement, you make statements like "relativity does not hold the exclusive right to physical correctness" implying that GR and SR make predictions backed by experiment. In your hard disagreement below, you seem to be claiming that SR makes predictions that disagree with experiment.
Both are true. SR predicts contraction of distance as a function of relative velocity (for one frame) but in another frame clocks are dilated. A common physical cause does not generate two different physical consequences based on mere perspective of frames. Lorentz contraction has never been demonstrated physically.
You've used way too many pronouns here. I have no clue what you are attempting to say. You seem to be saying that:
a) There must be some absolute clock that ticks throughout space and has some kind of importance.
b) You can formulate a theory based on this if you eliminate length contraction.
Recall that both length contraction and time dilation were both part of physics years before SR. They did not grow out of SR.
And the Earth as the center of all motion preceeded that. It wasn't correct either.
According to who? Why are distance and time special units of measure and velocity a composite unit of measure? You can just as easily claim that time and velocity are special units of measure and define distance as a composite of velocity and time.
This is actually a matter of choice and logic. The point being you must pick one and not flip-flop from one to the other changing frames. One could argue that distance contracts but clocks continue to tick at a common rate but logically that carries with it certain unpleasant consequences - i.e.
1 - Under relavistic conditions you get closer to something the faster you receed from it.
2 - The whole of the universe collapses to virtual nothing for a particle accelerated to near light's v = c in a matter of milli-seconds.
3 - The accelerating expansion of the universe must in fact be due to decelleration since at relavistic velocities near the edge of the universe such objects would be subject to spatial contraction not expansion.
Oscam's Razor would suggest it is clock tick rate based on some absolute universal energy level and not spatial contraction that produces the measured results - BUT not both as a matter of observer perspective.
You described a situation that has never been observed to exist (in inertial reference frames). You will never observe a clock in another inertial reference frame ticking faster than your own. Your example claims that when using "B"'s frame of reference, clock "A" will tick faster than your own. Please to provide experimental data to show this.
You are getting lost once again. This is NOT about what you might "Observe" or "Percieve" during relative motion but about permanent physical change as demonstrated by dilated clocks and accumulated time differences when compared in a common rest frame "After" having had relative velocity.
A measurement of velocity depends on a chosen inertial reference frame. So lets say that "A" is a clock launched from the mars base. "B" is a clock launched from the earth. Both are sent towards eachother at high rates of speed. Are you claiming that both will measure different relative velocities?
Correct. The key here is the term "Measure" which is based on ds / dt and where they have different acceleration histories hence different (unknown) absolute velocities, therefor different dilated tick rates or "t" standards.
Use the two clocks, one from mars and one from earth and show me the math (The clocks are on a collision course)
Assume some universal absolute rest reference from which these vehicles have achieved the following respective velocities.
M = 0.1c and E = 0.3c.
GammaM = 1.005037815
GammaE = 1.048284837
Respective ticks rates universally would be:
tM = 0.994987437
tE = 0.953939201
Now assuming Velocity Addition (which I don't BTW) they would see according to SR a common relative velocity of 0.338349515c, not 0.4c.
However that ignores the fact that one will ultimately be found to be ticking slower than the other according to accumulated times. Both are slightly dilated unversally.
tM / tE = 1.043030243
Hence (excluding velocity addition) M computes 0.1c * 1.005037815 = 0.100503c for himself relative to mars and computes E leaving earth at 0.3015c for a closing of 0.402c (with velocity addition) = 0.39017c!
While E computes 0.3c * 1.04828 = 0.31448c for himself and sees M as leaving mars at 0.104828c. For a closing rate of 0.419308c (with VA) = 0.44799c!
Does universally mean from any inertial reference frame? Or a particular reference frame. If so, which one?
Universally is the unknown, not measured absolute rest frame.
Yes we would. Why wouldn't we?
Because if you merely accept physical properties as being truely physical and not some flip-flop mathematical assumptions then clocks with motion have different tick rates and will compute different relative velocities.
I fully acknowledge that this view becomes a bit more difficult to work with mathematically but that does not make it any less logical from a pure physicas vantage point.
You are starting to ask appropriate questions. It would also be appropriate if you were to note that my calculations are correct or not. See I do the math also inspite of assertions to the contrary here..