Yes, it looks like a probable match to me - though innocence can be conveyed by other words than parthenos. What is interesting is that IF anyone regarded this as somehow prophetic before Jesus, then yes it would be read by a Greek as "virgin" - with the sexually untouched suggestion - but now I'm fuzzled. Because
i) there was no prophetic belief, and Matthew and Luke's sources made it up, but it happened to fit the Isaiah passage
ii) there was a prophetic belief, and and Matthew and Luke's sources made it up, so it fits the Isaiah passage
iii) there was no prophetic belief, and Matthew and Luke's sources were accurate accounts of a real event, but it fits the Isaiah passage
iv) iii) there was no prophetic belief, and Matthew and Luke's sources were accurate accounts of a real event, but it fits the Isaiah passage
The problem is I am not aware of ANY tradition associating this Isaiah passage with the Messianic prophecies before Christianity? Anyone help here? Yet clearly it was regarded as a convincing argument to the 1st century Jews, which at least implies there was something rather odd about Jesus birth - or noone left who knew anything about his childhood...
cj x
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