Which has nothing at all to do with it, does it? Are you really saying that the capacity to win a fight means you have to start a fight? I know a lot of big blokes who would take issue with that.
Did I say that? No.
I am not sure anyone but you has done this but perhaps I missed it
I'm not accusing anyone in this thread of having done that. It's something that happens generally in society.
Well one reasonable way would be to see how often they do it. It seems unlikely that people less prone to violence would do more of it, does it not?
The problem with this is the crime statistics only reflect the
result of violence. The OP was referring to
intention. You could have a paralyzed person who was obsessively psychotically violent, yet because of a physical inability to actually commit violent acts, any crime statistics would not count him.
See the problem here? It's a question of intent versus outcome.
No. Instances of violence are recorded (not always and not perfectly) and it is a perfectly reasonable measure of violence.
They're a good measure of who is being violent. They're not a good measure of who is prone to violence. Crime statistics deal only with the end result, not intent and not cause.
It is certainly true that the source of the huge difference in instances of violent crime perpetrated by men and women is not at all clear in terms of causation. It has been suggested that female violence is less likely to be reported because men are embarrassed (possible but unlikely to outweigh the failure of women to report it for that and other reasons): or less likely to be prosecuted where it is reported (not seen any evidence so I cannot comment on that; though I find it vanishingly unlikely that women are not prosecuted for murder or other serious assaults, as others have said). Maybe. But this is mostly guesswork. What we do know is that focussing on male on female violence or vice versa leaves out the fact that male on male violence is very widespread too: lots of hospital A+E departments are full of those victims every night of the week: do you have evidence there are equal numbers of women there as victims of female violence? Did you look at the statistics posted in this thread (twice) and do you have any comment to make on this evidence?
I think I've accepted, from the start, that most serious violent crime is perpetrated by males. In my opinion that doesn't adequately answer the OP. I was attempting to address the other side of it.
Think of it as two separate questions:
1) Which gender
can be more violent
2) Which gender
wants to be more violent
Crime statistics neatly answer 1) (there are issues about domestic violence, as discussed, but I think it still hold true that men are more violent) but Crime statistics do not answer 2). However looking at a specific more controlled and better studied subset of violent crime - domestic violence - helps to give some insight into 2).
Study finds Women as violent as Men
Studies show young Women becoming more violent with partners
Summary of 246 scholarly investigations indicating that women are as physically aggressive or more physically aggressive than males in domestic relationships
Men Shouldn't Be Overlooked as Victims of Partner Violence
And so on...
See above. That is ********
It's ******** that New Zealand Police believe that, or what they believe is ********?
and I note in passing that the figure grows every time you tell it
The first time I said "well over half". The second time I said "60 to 80%". How is there any discrepancy there?
False rape complaints annoy police
NZ Herald, August 8, 2005
False rape complaints tie up resources
One News, TVNZ, August 8, 2005
Then it is recorded as assault. What is your point?
I wasn't making a point, I was providing some background information so people unfamiliar with New Zealand law could follow the statistics.
The issue is not about sexual assault, or about domestic violence: it is about the relative incidence of violence perpetrated be men and women.
It's not, it's about propensity for violence in men and women. I've explained my reasoning for using domestic violence as an indicator.
Are you suggesting that records of violent crime do not record the sex of the perpetrator?
No, I'm not.
Yes. I have always wondered why because to me it is part of the reason that the attrition referred to above is so high. A violent crime is a violent crime and I see no particular reason to give sex crime a separate status. But that is irrelevant in any case is it not. For some reason you are intent of bringing this down to violence between men and women and that is not what the thread is about
I'm not sure why you're getting so uptight about me merely pointing out some aspects of how crime statistics in New Zealand are recorded.
You are still wrong about the false allegations.
You mean New Zealand detectives are still wrong about the false allegations.
More on the problem of false allegations in New Zealand.
But again, do you honestly think that the figures for reported crime are made of people wandering in off the street and saying there was crime?
Yes. Reported crime statistics total numbers of formal complaints made to police. That's why they distinguish between "resolved" and "unresolved". Some of the false complaints will be "resolved" (about 300 women in New Zealand are charged every year with laying false sexual assault complaints - these are only the rare cases that expend so much police time that prosecution is initiated) and other false complaints will be "unresolved". Of course you also get wrongful convictions such as the case of Peter Ellis who was convicted of multiple counts of child sexual abuse that any clown with a brain can see never occurred.
While I was prepared to consider the inclusion of other types of definition of violence if you wanted to do that, I am not prepared to consider property damage as violence: the word loses all usefulness if you take it that far. You want to include jay walking cos it gives drivers a fright?
Your remark is ridiculous. Willful damage to property is quite obviously an act of violence, even using the most narrow definition of the word. The intent is to use force to cause physical damage to an object.
What discrepancy? The attrition in cases of rape which no crime such a high percentage of reports?
Your second sentence is incomprehensible. The discrepancy cited is specifically in relation to domestic violence.
See above.
You think there are no societal factors influencing the incidence of domestic violence? You think poverty and overcrowding etc etc have no effect on domestic violence but they do on other crimes? Why?
Did I say that? No.
I think "natural inclination" carries baggage, but even if I grant that is not what you intend I do not for one moment see how you can say that domestic violence is a purer indication of the tendency than any other form of violence.
Because data is less likely to be clouded by other factors.
I'm going to speak hypothetically here, because I want to illustrate the point in a simple way.
Let us assume that we have a set of data on violent crime, and it indicates that males commit most of the violence in society. But what if the majority of non-domestic violent crime results as an escalation, or as a component of, other non-violent crime. For example, a burglar breaks into a house to steal someone's television and surprises the owner, and causes injury to the owner in their attempt to escape.
Let's pretend that men are more likely to commit non-violent crime also.
It would then be possible that the higher percentage of males committing violent crime was not a result of men being more violent, but men committing more crimes in general - in other words it's not men that are more likely to be violent, but criminals, and men are more likely to be criminals (for reasons other than violence).
Now, all of the above could, of course, be totally false. That's why I said it was hypothetical. Another hypothetical could be that men are more likely to be criminals
because they are more violent. But it illustrates the problems that you run into when you start looking at violent crime statistics.
This is why domestic violence is useful. Domestic violence, by its very nature, is a more controlled environment for study. Both men and women are equally likely to be in domestic situations, and due to the nature of domestic situations the individuals in a given situation are going to be experiencing similar socio-economic influences. It is a
confined environment - typically you're talking about small family units of a couple of adults and possibly children.
You can easily isolate gender relationships - male-female, male-male, and female-female.
Further, most people, regardless of attitude, values, history, ethnicity, gender, race, religion, or any other factor, are in some sort of domestic living arrangement. Most (obviously) are not violent, so we can conclude there is nothing inherently violent about being in a domestic relationship. (Contrast this with, say, belonging to a gang).
That's why domestic violence is a more useful sample for assessing a particular gender's propensity to be violent than simply counting up incidents of violent crime.