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Evidence for why we know the New Testament writers told the truth.

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Juries are fine but their decision merely gives their opinion of the truth not evidence of it.

Yes, but they give that opinion "after" they hear and see the evidence.

The 270 bishops of the council of Nicaea obviously must have examined the evidence of all the scripture of the day and then collectively gave their opinion as to the authenticity of those works.
 
Surely, if reliable, all of those source demonstrate that the gospel we have today is not the one that Matthew wrote. These sources seem to demonstrate beyond doubt that Matthew's gospel was written in Aramaic (or perhaps Hebrew), but the gospel that appears in our Bible was originally written in Greek.

Palestine was very multi-lingual, thanks to Alexander the Great. It would have been easy for someone to have translated the 30 page gospel (about the famous Jesus) into Greek if Matthew did indeed write it in Hebrew only. And there is always the possibility that the tax collector Matthew, who must have surely dealt with all kinds of people (who spoke different languages) collecting taxes, wrote the 30 page gospel in both Hebrew and Greek.
 
Yes, but they give that opinion "after" they hear and see the evidence.

The 270 bishops of the council of Nicaea obviously must have examined the evidence of all the scripture of the day and then collectively gave their opinion as to the authenticity of those works.
and OJ was found innocent.
 
Yes, but they give that opinion "after" they hear and see the evidence.

The 270 bishops of the council of Nicaea obviously must have examined the evidence of all the scripture of the day and then collectively gave their opinion as to the authenticity of those works.
Yes, but how do you know they got the right answer? The fact that their creed only lasted 50 years suggests the church believes they got it wrong.
 
Yes, but they give that opinion "after" they hear and see the evidence.

The 270 bishops of the council of Nicaea obviously must have examined the evidence of all the scripture of the day and then collectively gave their opinion as to the authenticity of those works.

I'm also not sure the world 'obviously' belongs in that sentence. Do you know that they examined the evidence or are you assuming they did? Is there any record of what the process was, or just the decisions?
 
The 270 bishops of the council of Nicaea obviously must have examined the evidence of all the scripture of the day and then collectively gave their opinion as to the authenticity of those works.


Argument from authority and argument by popularity in one sentence!

C'mon DOC, I am sure you can get three fallacies in a single argument if you try hard enough.
 
Palestine was very multi-lingual, thanks to Alexander the Great. It would have been easy for someone to have translated the 30 page gospel (about the famous Jesus) into Greek if Matthew did indeed write it in Hebrew only. And there is always the possibility that the tax collector Matthew, who must have surely dealt with all kinds of people (who spoke different languages) collecting taxes, wrote the 30 page gospel in both Hebrew and Greek.
Yes, but the sources that you gave all say that the gospel that Matthew the Apostle wrote was written in Aramaic or Hebrew. None of them mention a version in Greek. The modern Gospel of Matthew that we have was written in Greek. It is not the document that your sources were referring to. Even if somebody did translate the original Matthew's gospel into Greek, it is still not the same docment as the one we have today (which incorporates large parts of Mark's Gospel).
 
Argument from authority and argument by popularity in one sentence!

C'mon DOC, I am sure you can get three fallacies in a single argument if you try hard enough.

I think that, as Red Worm points out, the obviously in Doc's argument is also fallacious.
 
Yes, but how do you know they got the right answer? The fact that their creed only lasted 50 years suggests the church believes they got it wrong.

Please explain this. It hasn't been explained in this thread.
 
Even if somebody did translate the original Matthew's gospel into Greek, it is still not the same docment as the one we have today (which incorporates large parts of Mark's Gospel).

How do you know this. Mathew could have put in parts of Mark's gospel into his to to save time, and then, being a eye witness, added new material that was not in Mark's Gospel.

It seems some skeptics want it both ways. They complain when the gospels are too different, and then they complain when the gospels are too similar.
 
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How do you know this. Mathew could have put in parts of Mark's gospel into his to to save time, and then, being a eye witness, added new material that was not in Mark's Gospel.

You're not accusing Matthew of plagiarism, are you Doc?
 
No I'm not, the word plagiarism didn't exist in Matthew's time, that I know of.

So they had to go through the whole tedious phrase "Stealing the words and ideas of others and presenting them as your own"?

Are you trying to say that it is impossible for things to exist until there is a single word for them?

Does this mean that technically the virgin Mary can't be called a MILF?
 
No I'm not, the word plagiarism didn't exist in Matthew's time, that I know of.
THey also didn't have the word "Multitasking", but that doesn't mean they didn't have the action.
 
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