SkepticWiki And The Bible

And not to mention Gen 1-8 I think [thereabouts].

What was it now? Oh yes...god separated the light from the dark and called one day and the other night...

That is clearly impossible and goes down as "ONE OF THOSE THINGS THAT A GOD CANNOT DO"!

Why not? God can do anything, right?

Because, in point of fact, there is no such thing as 'dark'. Dark is merely the absence of light, they can not be joined; dark has no substance; it is not made of any type of electromagnetic field or matter; it can't be detected [only the lack of light can be measured].

Just as there is no such thing as black!

Or white!

Truly Ironic, when the bible tries to paint the rosy black & white picture it portrays within its pages.

Neither is there a night and day to be named; as in Genesis. The sunlight is constant and a night is merely the shadow of the Earth; would you call it night if an elephant sat on your face and blocked the light? Of course not. You'd call 911.

Superstitious mumbo jumbo!

It truly is a great shame & pity to person-kind that our whole civilised world has been infested by this "virus of the mind" by inadequately evolved faither brain stems...

Griff...
 
How do you register for the SkepticWiki? I see a login page, but no registration.

A word of warning: Before letting this guy in to SkepticWiki, I'd suggest looking at his posts on IIDB in BC&H. This response to him is fairly enlightening:

http://iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?p=4307808#post4307808

(BTW, the one replying to Malachi151, Chris Weimer, is an agnostic classical scholar.)

We don't need any pseudohistory and use of marginal scholarship on the SkepticWiki.
 
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My comments on your Jesus historicity article:

Numerous errors in the current article...

There are numerous errors and overstatements in the current article on the existence of Jesus. How should this be addressed? I'd like to see a more balanced presentation of the various points, as opposed to what is currently simply a misguided polemic against the mythicist position that misrepresents many facts.

Here are some of the problems I see so far:

"The attestation that Jesus had brothers is attested across multiple sources, namely the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John, Paul's epistles, and Josephus."

This is misleading to false, and indeed greatly overlooks serious scholarship.

The Gospel of Mark and the Gospel of Matthew name brothers of Jesus. The Gospel of Luke and the Gospel of John simply mention brothers, but don't name them. The author of Matthew clearly copied his information from the Gospel of Mark, and the references in Luke and John also follow this tradition. The Gospel of Mark, however, gives many reasons to consider it a purely fictitious story, in which characters are fabricated and play out roles in a narrative.

The claim that Josephus names a brother of Jesus is complicated by the fact that the passage in question is indeed in serious doubt as an interpolation.

As for Paul, Zindler's assessment (mentioned in the article) is correct. This is strongly supported by the fact that none of the other 1st century writers claimed that the James who was a leading figure was a brother of Jesus. If the person who Paul met was a real brother of Jesus, then the writers of the Gospels, Acts, the other Epistles, and various apocrypha, such as the Gospel of Thomas and the Gospel of the Hebrews were all either unaware of this fact, or indeed directly contradict it.

See my article here for a full discussion of this (search for "brother of the Lord"):

http://www.rationalrevolution.net/articles/jesus_myth_followup.htm

"The Gospels consistently report Jesus' hometown as being the "city" (really a obscure village) of Nazareth."

This is irrelevant. The Gospels are clearly stores that do portray Jesus as a real historical person, there is no debate about that. The Gospels of Matthew and Luke place Jesus in Nazareth because that's what the author of Mark did. The question is, why did the author of Mark make this claim.

"Now if Jesus really had been crucified, then it makes sense that the doctrine of his crucifixion would be there; the disciples were forced to deal with the crucifixion of their master, and the doctrine evolved from there. However, the prejudice against crucifixion makes it unlikely that anyone would have wanted to make up from whole cloth a religion with a crucifixion as its center."

This is not only pure speculation, but pure speculation from a totally uninformed opinion and no understanding of the messianic literature and beliefs of the time. Writings from Qumran and other messianic and apocalyptic writings of the time show an expectation that the savior, prophet, or "son of man", would be a despised person who would die a humiliated death at the hands of authorities (often divine). The "Suffering Servant" passage in Isaiah had been a motif for messianic writings for at least 100 years prior to the time of Paul.

Crucifixion, indeed, makes perfect sense as a mythical construct, because crucifixion was something a mode of death that was heavily associated with being executed by authorities. In addition, the people whom this savior was representing suffered crucifixion themselves. That this was a horrible means of death is what makes the entire story and symbolism make sense. I couldn't conceive of a mode of death that would be better suited to this story. This can also be compared to being sawed in half with a wooden saw in the Martyrdom of Isaiah story, written about one century before the Jesus story, and referred to in the Book of Hebrews. There was an expectation that true prophets would suffer humiliation and a painful death.

"How much impact on the historical record should Jesus have had?"

Dismissing the lack of evidence is not in itself a form of evidence.

"It is far more likely than not that Jesus of Nazareth existed as a human being."

I strongly disagree, and I disagree with the nature of this article. An article on this subject should be balanced and present all of the relevant information, not present straw men and poor arguments against a few points.

I would be happy to participate in writing a more balanced article, which I believe should neither take a position for or against historicity.

Malachi151 19:53, 6 May 2007 (CDT)
 
A word of warning: Before letting this guy in to SkepticWiki, I'd suggest looking at his posts on IIDB in BC&H. This response to him is fairly enlightening:

http://iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?p=4307808#post4307808

(BTW, the one replying to Malachi151, Chris Weimer, is an agnostic classical scholar.)

Meh. I'm not adverse to revisions as long as sources are properly cited, and as long as it doesn't get into an edit war over unsupported assertions. We'll see how his posting goes. Wonder if Chris would like to join, though...

We don't need any pseudohistory and use of marginal scholarship on the SkepticWiki.


Agreed. Admittedly I spend 99% of my time on the wiki in the root shell of the server trying to get tex plugins to work, and tweaking the DB. I have written exactly one article for the wiki (the EVP one) and right now don't have much time for edits. You guys hash it out. If there's something valuable to be gained from discussion on the discussion pages, then do it. If it turns ugly let me know and we'll roll back the revisions. Till then, Malachi151 does have an account. I'm hoping all changes he makes are properly sourced and cited with decent source material. If it isn't it will be surely called to task.
 
I would be happy to participate in writing a more balanced article, which I believe should neither take a position for or against historicity.

Malachi151 19:53, 6 May 2007 (CDT)

The skepticwiki does not maintain NPOV like wikipedia does. Specifically it is SPOV (Skeptical point of view) and as long as sources are cited (and by sources I dont mean a personal webpage) I have no problem taking the position that either jesus did or did not exist as long as that's where the evidence supports.
 
The skepticwiki does not maintain NPOV like wikipedia does. Specifically it is SPOV (Skeptical point of view) and as long as sources are cited (and by sources I dont mean a personal webpage) I have no problem taking the position that either jesus did or did not exist as long as that's where the evidence supports.

That's fine as long as a certain conclusion can be drawn, but in this case that is not the case.

The article on JM currently posted by JJ is an opinion piece. Far from skeptical, it seeks to cut off skeptical inquiry and takes generally traditional Christian arguments with little or no support for the claims being made. Several of the arguments put fourth by JJ are in fact traditional Christian apologetic arguments. On of the worst, perhaps, is the "but someone making up the story wouldn't have said he was crucified" claim, which is completely absurd.
 
Can't say I disagree with anything you said, Malachi. Like I said, as long as we're using proper sources and following logically to our conclusions, and not abusing science ala attempting to explain Jesus with quantum physics, I have no problem with it.
 
My comments on your Jesus historicity article:

Numerous errors in the current article...

Here are some of the problems I see so far:

"The attestation that Jesus had brothers is attested across multiple sources, namely the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John, Paul's epistles, and Josephus."

This is misleading to false, and indeed greatly overlooks serious scholarship.

The Gospel of Mark and the Gospel of Matthew name brothers of Jesus. The Gospel of Luke and the Gospel of John simply mention brothers, but don't name them.

Errm, looks to me like the Synoptic Gospels and the Gospel of John both attest that Jesus had brothers.

The author of Matthew clearly copied his information from the Gospel of Mark

Which is why I lumped the Synoptic Gospels together when discussing multiple attestation, rather than treating each of them as a separate source.

The Gospel of Mark, however, gives many reasons to consider it a purely fictitious story, in which characters are fabricated and play out roles in a narrative.

You've argued this on IIDB, and the likes of Chris Weimer have found it wanting.

The claim that Josephus names a brother of Jesus is complicated by the fact that the passage in question is indeed in serious doubt as an interpolation.

This is a misrepresentation. The Testimonium is in serious doubt, and for good reason. So far as yet, the scholarly consensus is that the other reference, the one referring to James, is genuine. You have yet to present a good case that the passage is an interpolation. I've pointed out some problems in a previous post.

As for Paul, Zindler's assessment (mentioned in the article) is correct.

Zindler's claim that "we know from I Cor. 9:5 that there existed a governing class coordinate with apostles that was called 'Brothers of the Lord'," is transparently false, since the verse does not indicate that "brothers of the Lord" was a governing class.

"The Gospels consistently report Jesus' hometown as being the "city" (really a obscure village) of Nazareth."

This is irrelevant. The Gospels are clearly stores that do portray Jesus as a real historical person, there is no debate about that. The Gospels of Matthew and Luke place Jesus in Nazareth because that's what the author of Mark did. The question is, why did the author of Mark make this claim.

There is an obvious, non-kludgy answer to that last question. :)

"Now if Jesus really had been crucified, then it makes sense that the doctrine of his crucifixion would be there; the disciples were forced to deal with the crucifixion of their master, and the doctrine evolved from there. However, the prejudice against crucifixion makes it unlikely that anyone would have wanted to make up from whole cloth a religion with a crucifixion as its center."

This is not only pure speculation

Hardly. The SkepticWiki shows several sources pointing out the stigma of crucifixion.

Writings from Qumran and other messianic and apocalyptic writings of the time show an expectation that the savior, prophet, or "son of man", would be a despised person who would die a humiliated death at the hands of authorities (often divine). The "Suffering Servant" passage in Isaiah had been a motif for messianic writings for at least 100 years prior to the time of Paul.

From "The Suffering Servant at Qumran" by John J. Collins, BAR:

The Dead Sea Scrolls have indeed produced some interesting parallels to the New Testament. The Son of God text (4Q246)b is an obvious example. On the other hand, there has been a tendency in some quarters to exaggerate the points of correspondence. This occurred, for example, in the controversy over the alleged Pierced Messiah or Dying Messiah text (4Q285).c The controversy concerned the possibility that, even before the crucifixion of Jesus of Nazareth, some Jews expected a messiah who would be killed. For some people, this possibility, if true, would undermine “the uniqueness” of Christianity. For others, it would enhance the credibility of Christianity in the context of ancient Judaism. In fact, nothing found in the Dead Sea Scrolls is likely to have much impact, either positive or negative, on Christian faith, but the theological (or anti-theological) interest of scholars can distort the reading of an ancient text. I believe that this was the case in the Pierced Messiah controversy. In that instance, the context makes it quite clear that the messianic figure did the killing, and was not killed. Some scholars were misled, however, by their eagerness to find a parallel to the New Testament.

Pardon me if I am suspicious of your claims about the scrolls at Qumran.

"How much impact on the historical record should Jesus have had?"

Dismissing the lack of evidence is not in itself a form of evidence.

Of course not. It is merely a rebuttal to the claim that if Jesus had existed, we should expect widespread attestation from non-Christian sources.

I would be happy to participate in writing a more balanced article

Your idea of "balance," as illustrated by the quote from Weimer, is to present a distorted view of the current scholarship.
 
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Several of the arguments put fourth by JJ are in fact traditional Christian apologetic arguments.

You mean like this one:

Despite the claim in Matthew 2:23 that the prophets predicted that "He will be called a Nazorean," there is no Old Testament prophecy naming Nazareth or a Nazorean. The closest things are the prophecies referring to one who will be called the "branch," which in Hebrew is netser [8]. The connection between "branch" and Nazareth, however, is a stretch, and if Matthew himself is making such a connection, that would suggest that Matthew is shoehorning, trying to force the prophecy to fit into the facts.

Or this?

The Gospels of Matthew and Luke resort to contorted stories to have him be born in Bethlehem
 
ok, well, jjramsey and malachi, I'll let you two discuss this, as I trust jjramsey's judgement, and you seem reasonable, malachi, because I don't know this article specifically.
 
#1) BAR? LOL, this is the same crew of people who brought us "The Lost Tomb of Jesus" and who buy into Jesus bloodline conspiracy theories.

#2) I wasn't even talking about that text from Qumran in the first place.

#3) There are plenty of other Jewish writings that also contain passion narratives and describe the "hero figures", prophets, etc., as being tortured to death. Hell 2 Maccabees for that matter.

rrm, looks to me like the Synoptic Gospels and the Gospel of John both attest that Jesus had brothers.

"Attest"? What does "attest" mean? First you have to establish that they have some kind of authority. However, seeing as how they are all dependent on Mark, and Mark is an allegorical fiction, the fact that they all copy his claims doesn't really amount to much does it?

Plus, you are trying to show that the person that Paul met, James, was indeed a brother of Jesus. If this is the case, then the author of Luke and Acts surely doesn't think so. The author of Luke and Acts never names any brothers of Jesus and talks about someone named James who meets Paul who is NOT a brother of Jesus, but who is a leader.

So, why didn't the author of Luke and Acts realize that the person named James whom Paul met was in fact a real life brother of Jesus?

For that matter, why is it that the author of the Gospel of Thomas doesn't state this either? Why is it that the Gospel of the Hebrews calls "James the Just" one of the apostles instead of a brother of Jesus?

Why is the main character James in all of the Gospels "James son of Zebedee", not a James brother of Jesus?

Etc., etc.

The details are far more complex, and instead of exploring the details you simply take the traditional Christian line.

This isn't really the proper thread for a discussion of this. I just want the section on this subject to present both sides of the case. It also needs to do this without being too long of course, which can be difficult.

I'll write something up and post it and we can go from there.
 
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#1) BAR? LOL, this is the same crew of people who brought us "The Lost Tomb of Jesus" and who buy into Jesus bloodline conspiracy theories.

Same organization, but I think the author of the article had about as much to do with the Jesus tomb debacle as a reporter for the Wall Street Journal has to do with its editorial pages.

Also, the "Dan Brown"-type of Jesus bloodline conspiracy stuff doesn't have much to do with the tomb stuff except for the claim that Jesus may have been married.

#2) I wasn't even talking about that text from Qumran in the first place.

No, you were making the kind of general claims about the Qumran scrolls that have been been made before and shot down before. My quote was an example.

#3) There are plenty of other Jewish writings that also contain passion narratives and describe the "hero figures", prophets, etc., as being tortured to death. Hell 2 Maccabees for that matter.

2 Maccabees certainly has people who choose to be tortured to death rather than forsake Jewish law. This is a pretty weak link to the idea of the Messiah as Suffering Servant.

"Attest"? What does "attest" mean?

In this context, it simply means prima facie support for a claim. "Attest" is sometimes used in a stronger sense, but the people who discuss criteria for multiple attestation in the first place are working from the assumption that the Gospels, and any other part of the NT for that matter, are not consistently reliable testimony.

Plus, you are trying to show that the person that Paul met, James, was indeed a brother of Jesus. If this is the case, then the author of Luke and Acts surely doesn't think so. The author of Luke and Acts never names any brothers of Jesus and talks about someone named James who meets Paul who is NOT a brother of Jesus, but who is a leader.

Let's see here: In Acts, Paul meets with James (15:13, 21:18), who is not identified specifically as Jesus's brother. From Luke's silence about whether this James was the brother of Jesus, you conclude that Luke is indicating that James was not a brother of Jesus. This is an argument from, well, silence.
 
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[swiki]Antichrist[/swiki]

I also found the related article [swiki]Number of the Beast[/swiki] couldn't be reached from any index page, and made it so.
 
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In the Nephilim article, you may want to mention the possibility that the spies sent into the land of Canaan were just exaggerating by describing the men there as Nephilim, and that the Nephilim may indeed have been wiped out in the flood. That explanation seems more likely than "the sons of God revisited the Earth after the Flood to have more supernatural-being-on-human sex, fathering more Nephilim."

The Straight Dope has this to say:

In Numbers 13:32-33, the Israelites send advance spies to scout out the land of Canaan. The spies report that "All the people we saw in it are men of great size; we saw the Nephilim there--the Anakites are part of the Nephilim--and we looked like grasshoppers to ourselves, and so we must have looked to them." Now, the problem with this description is that, if the biblical narrative is consistent, then the Nephilim would not have survived the Flood, so how would they have been around for the spies to see? The answer is that the spies were trying to instill fear in the hearts of the people, to discourage them from invading the land, and so they used poetic exaggeration. The term Nephilim was used for dramatic effect, as the term "Huns" was used to indicate Germans during the World Wars, centuries after there were no longer true Huns.

-Bri
 
From article King David's Census:

The whole idea that taking a census is sinful is unique to these two chapters of the Bible. Certainly, if God normally reacted that way, most civilized nations would be visited by pestilence every five or ten years; moreover, when God tells Moses to take a census (in the Book of Numbers, chapter 1 [3]) neither Moses nor the tribes of Israel are punished for it. Nor is Nehemiah punished for similar proceedings in Nehemiah 7. [4]

There are apparently several places in the Old Testimate indicating that plague might break out if a census was taken incorrectly (i.e. instead of counting directly, a half-shekel coin was to be collected from each person, and only those over 20 years old could be counted). Furthermore, this prohibition apparently only applied to the children of Israel. From Exodus 30 (BibleGateway, King James Version):

12 When thou takest the sum of the children of Israel after their number, then shall they give every man a ransom for his soul unto the LORD, when thou numberest them; that there be no plague among them, when thou numberest them.

13 This they shall give, every one that passeth among them that are numbered, half a shekel after the shekel of the sanctuary: (a shekel is twenty gerahs:) an half shekel shall be the offering of the LORD.

14 Every one that passeth among them that are numbered, from twenty years old and above, shall give an offering unto the LORD.

Perhaps King David's punishment was due to the manner in which the census was taken rather than the fact that a census was taken.

-Bri
 
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