Originally Posted by Huntster
A simple primer might be:
The concentration of ethnic groups in "communities" within the larger city is usually due to the preference to be with others whom you can identify with.
Ah, so that's why people prefer to be in concentration camps and ghettos.
That's part of it, from what I understand.
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If that "community" tends to be of lower economic standing (for whatever reason), or cultural/language differences exacerbate the difficulty of keeping young men in conformance with the rest of society, or a number of other factors keep that "community" from meshing with the overall, surrounding city, there will be more crime.
You're describing numerous ethnic neighborhoods near where I grew up. I walked safely through many of them without fear of crack dealers or drive-by shootings.
I grew up in, then around a ghetto well known for violence.
It was violent.
The Jewish communities in Europe prior to the rise of Nazism were quite insular and they weren't exactly hot beds of seething crime. The only factor mentioned above that seems to have any statistical significance is economic standing, namely poverty.
So, since poverty is "universal", send money, whether or not the concentrated community is violent, or whether or not such a tactic works, even though it is tried again, and again, and again?
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The fact that crime statistics overwhelmingly, consistently, and reliably show that young black men commit the per capita majority of crime in America cannot be denied.
It's also true that a much higher percentage of them live in poverty with no perceived hope of escape except through crime.
So, send money, whether or not the concentrated community is violent, or whether or not such a tactic works, even though it is tried again, and again, and again?
How many times would you like to see Watts rebuilt with government loan guarantees, tax incentives, contract preferences, etc, by responsible blacks in that community, only to be trashed yet again by the thugs?
Who wins under such a scenario?
What is the solution?
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The reasons for that will forever be the bouncing ball of discussion, denial, accusation, debate, conjecture, etc., thusly one of the reasons it will never be dealt with effectively.
I don't agree. It will be difficult unless more people drop their prejudices and come to regard the issues objectivly. But "never" is, I feel, too strong a word.
Prejudices? Like I wrote, I'm pointing out DOJ statistics.
Do we need to point out that among white criminals, the majority of crime is also committed by young men? See a trend here, Sherlock?
Think that is economic/poverty driven, or is it prejudice?
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Japan is a nearly pure ethnic society. Their crime rate is also extremely low.
Can you prove that that is causation and not correlation?
Gee. I didn't think I'd have to. Here; try to figure it out when explained like this:
Since there is very little racial diversity in Japan, there is very little racial strife.
Japan also has a very low poverty rate. Russia on the other hand has a disturbingly high poverty rate. Despite the fact that most of its population is ethnically Russian the crime rate is staggeringly high.
All correct. There is no doubt that poverty has a direct relationship to criminal makeup.
So does gender.
So does age.
So does race.
There's more.
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While it is clearly not the complete explanation, I say there is a relationship. Denial of such a relationship, IMO, should be included in the "bouncing ball" of discussion, denial, accusation, debate, conjecture, etc. which assists in the problem never getting dealt with effectively.
Relationship to what? The murders of the Amish school girls?
Nope. This little exchange is a derail. It is macro-crime study. It's a result of one person introducing the factor of race into the discussion of national crime, and another trying to label that insignificant or prejudicial.
I still don't see what a book from a website that is identified as a hate group by the Southern Poverty Law Center has to do with the subject of this thread.
Nor I.