As I said earlier getting run over is not an accidental condition either in that sense. Usually you have to have done something silly like leave the house, knowing that there were cars about, to get run over.
Ok, good point. I didn't mean to suggest that an accidental outcome must be one in which the victim played no causal role in bringing about the situation, but the language you quoted from my post does sound that way. Let's adopt the definition of "accident" from dictionary.com, "An unexpected and undesirable event, especially one resulting in damage or harm." In this sense, both pregnancy and getting run over are accidents, despite the fact that the victim had some role in creating the situation. But even on this definition, I don't think that we can rule out criminal negligence.
You can't be criminally negligent by accident. The only accident involved is someone happening to walk by at just the wrong time (or whatever) to get killed by your negligent behaviour.
I don't quite understand how the outcome of negligent behavior is not accidental. Under the Model Penal Code, A person acts negligently when he should be aware when his conduct creates a substantial and unjustifiable risk. His failure to perceive it is a gross deviation from the standard of care exercised by a reasonable person." This is a higher standard than civil negligence, but it's basically the same idea. The fact that some harm must result for criminal liability to attach doesn't make the outcome less accidental-- for example, a person driving drunk who hits and kills a pedestrian in an
accident could be liable for criminally negligent homicide-- that is, for an unexpected and undesirable event, resulting in part from his gross deviation from the standard of care exercised by a reasonable person. How is this not an accident?
Similarly while you can commit a crime unintentionally I can't think of any plausible scenarios where you accidentally commit a crime while just going about your normal, legitimate business.
I can think one that brings out the distinction I'm getting at very well:
Bob, 25, goes to a 21+ nightclub on a Friday night. While he's there, he meets Anne, and at the end of the evening takes her back to his apartment, where they have sex using a condom. Anne leaves the next morning, but that evening the police show up at Bob's door and arrest him. Turns out Anne is only 16, and had gotten into the nightclub with a fake ID. With her outfit and makeup, the fact that she was in the club drinking, and the fact that he had had a couple of drinks himself, Bob sincerely believed that Anne was of legal age. Unfortunately, statutory rape is a strict liability crime- it doesn't matter whether Bob genuinely believed Anne was over 21 or not, he's still in trouble. Bob ultimately gets sentenced to 2 years in jail for statutory rape, where he has the typical jail experience-- his daily routine is dictated down to the last minute by the jail administrators, and he works in the prison shop for 40 cents per hour.
Meanwhile, Anne finds out that she's now pregnant from her encounter with Bob; apparently the condom broke. Unfortunately for Anne, she lives in South Dakota, and can't get an abortion. For the next nine months she's miserable, with morning sickness, high blood pressure, etc. A rough pregnancy, and she's in pretty constant discomfort. At the end of the gestation period, the baby arrives, she gives it up for adoption, and goes on with her life. Bob is still in jail for another 15 months.
So, looking at the purely accidental outcomes for both parties, neither of whom were even negligent in their behavior (if anything, Anne was more negligent than Bob), whose condition more closely resembles that of slavery? I don't think either of them have a legitimate claim to be called a "slave," but if I had to pick one, I'd go with Bob.
Most importantly, of course, criminal punishment is reserved for antisocial and/or criminal behaviour. Not for getting pregnant.
Well, of course criminal punishment is reserved for criminal behavior. And I'll even concede that most criminal liability is for "antisocial" behavior, so long as we realize that some antisocial behavior is not intentional, and the results are accidental.
I would reiterate, lest I be misinterpreted here, that this discussion is all somewhat off the main point of the conversation-- I'm not suggesting that pregnancy is the moral equivalent of criminal behavior. My only point is that, looking at the objective conditions alone, imprisonment is a closer comparison to slavery than pregnancy is.