mumblethrax
Species traitor
- Joined
- Apr 5, 2004
- Messages
- 4,992
Sure. It just doesn't follow. They are strictly independent questions.There's nothing stopping the law from defining sex as biological, as you said upthread.
The law. What I'm trying to point out is that the law, in this area, is itself nothing more than a set of social arrangements about how men and women, girls and boys are to be treated. The law is incapable of doing anything beyond creating and enforcing gender norms. If the law says you're male for the purposes of the law, that doesn't make you male.Wha? The law is gender? What does "it" refer to?
Sure. But it is still inescapably a gender norm. The law has no power to do anything else.And it can use scientific and biological definitions to do so.
Not "law and gender on one side", but "the law [specifically legal arrangement around sex] on the gender side."This just states your position (the razor places the law and gender on one side).
I think that position is pretty undeniable. The alternative is to argue that this is all a function of biology, which would be a strange view to hold, given that different societies have different answers to these questions.