How do we know that places like Narnia do not exist?

But nevertheless the real true reason why we behave as we do is through the interactions of ultimate particles (not that I actually believe this of course, but I know everyone else on here does).
I believe this.

But our behaviour is not only supposed to be reducible, but also our consciousness and everything we ever experience. In other words by looking at all the intricate interactions of my brain, one should in principle be able to derive what I am experiencing even if you have never had that experience yourself.
I don't see how this could work, though.

By "derive", do you mean "have the experience now for the first time"? Or what? I mean, if I somehow cause myself to have the experience, then I've had it; if not, not.

How can someone know what an experience is like without having experienced it? Experiences, by definition, have to be experienced, I would think.

If you can't in principle, then reductive materialism is false, and we have to fall back to non-reductive materialism at a minimum.
I guess I'm a non-reductive materialist, then.

Is that a good thing or a bad thing? :confused:

:D
 
IHow can someone know what an experience is like without having experienced it? Experiences, by definition, have to be experienced, I would think.
Sure.

But certainly you can have the experience of seeing green without any actual green being present. That optical illusion sphenisc linked to proved that. By tinkering with your brain directly, you can have the experience of seeing green without any colour being present at all.

So the idea that the experience of "greenness" is somehow irreducible, that it cannot be obtained by other means than actually seeing something green, is not just unsupported but obviously wrong.
 
Sure.

But certainly you can have the experience of seeing green without any actual green being present. That optical illusion sphenisc linked to proved that.

LOL no no no.

The green is present. And I bet you that you wouldn't see green if you had never seen green.
 
Originally Posted by Interesting Ian :
But our behaviour is not only supposed to be reducible, but also our consciousness and everything we ever experience. In other words by looking at all the intricate interactions of my brain, one should in principle be able to derive what I am experiencing even if you have never had that experience yourself.

69dodge
I don't see how this could work, though.

By "derive", do you mean "have the experience now for the first time"? Or what? I mean, if I somehow cause myself to have the experience, then I've had it; if not, not.

Consider the clockwork clock example again. Once you have completely and totally understood all the properties of its component parts, then you can in principle understand why the clock does what it does. So by "derive" we are starting from a complete and total knowledge of the component parts of the clock and the physical laws dictating how these component parts interact with the other component parts. Once we understand all that, then we understand why the clock operates as it does.

That is what I mean by "derive". Not a logical derive, but a derive meaning that once we know all the physical laws governing the properties, and hence interactions of the component parts, we know why the clock does what it does. That is to say its behaviour is inevitable given the properties of the component parts.

According to the reductive materialist exactly the same sort of reasoning should apply to human beings. Everything that we do is derived from the interactions of the ultimate components of our brains.

That is to say everything we do i.e the totality of our behaviour.

But what about our consciousness?

Now you believe that particular brain states fix mental states. That is to say that consciousness is wholly generated by the brain, and ones particular mental state is wholly fixed by ones brain state. Ones brainstate, in turn, is simply the result of physical laws playing out.

But this is the crucial point . . .

Even if this is so, nevertheless we cannot derive our consciousness from the component parts of the brain.

All we would be doing is to say that when the brain is in a particular state, a specific particular mental state occurs.

Going back to the analogy of the clockwork clock; that's like saying that we know that what the clock does is due to its component parts interacting with each other (because, for eg, it always says 12 noon for a particular specific internal state of the clock), but we cannot understand why this particular internal state leads to it saying 12 noon. All we are left doing is discovering, on a piecemeal basis, what particular time it says for a specific internal state of the clock. But we have no idea of why it says the time it does apart from mapping out these correlations.

Now if we were to conclude that even though consciousness is created by the brain, we are unable to derive this consciousness, and all we can do in fact is to map out the correlations i.e when a brain is in a particular state, some specific mental state inevitably occurs, then we have given up on reductive materialism (and indeed on the idea that science completely describes reality (because it misses out consciousness)).

To repeat: if brain states fix mental states, but these mental states are "unexpected" given the interactions of the ultimate parts of the brain, then we have given up on reductionist materialism.

What you would then be saying is that brains create minds/consciousness, but the way it does this is not something which can be understood, in principle, by an exhaustive knowledge of the brain's ultimate components and their interactions.

In short you would be espousing non-reductive materialism, or epiphenomenalism (I would argue they're the same).

I guess I'm a non-reductive materialist, then.

Is that a good thing or a bad thing? :confused:

:biggrin:

It's bad in the sense that you're giving up on the idea that science can wholly explain all things in terms of the ultimate physical entities.

It's good in that you're facing up to reality.
 
Consider the clockwork clock example again. Once you have completely and totally understood all the properties of its component parts, then you can in principle understand why the clock does what it does. So by "derive" we are starting from a complete and total knowledge of the component parts of the clock and the physical laws dictating how these component parts interact with the other component parts. Once we understand all that, then we understand why the clock operates as it does.

That is what I mean by "derive". Not a logical derive, but a derive meaning that once we know all the physical laws governing the properties, and hence interactions of the component parts, we know why the clock does what it does. That is to say its behaviour is inevitable given the properties of the component parts.

According to the reductive materialist exactly the same sort of reasoning should apply to human beings. Everything that we do is derived from the interactions of the ultimate components of our brains.

That is to say everything we do i.e the totality of our behaviour.

But what about our consciousness?

Now you believe that particular brain states fix mental states. That is to say that consciousness is wholly generated by the brain, and ones particular mental state is wholly fixed by ones brain state. Ones brainstate, in turn, is simply the result of physical laws playing out.

But this is the crucial point . . .

Even if this is so, nevertheless we cannot derive our consciousness from the component parts of the brain.

All we would be doing is to say that when the brain is in a particular state, a specific particular mental state occurs.

Going back to the analogy of the clockwork clock; that's like saying that we know that what the clock does is due to its component parts interacting with each other (because, for eg, it always says 12 noon for a particular specific internal state of the clock), but we cannot understand why this particular internal state leads to it saying 12 noon. All we are left doing is discovering, on a piecemeal basis, what particular time it says for a specific internal state of the clock. But we have no idea of why it says the time it does apart from mapping out these correlations.

Now if we were to conclude that even though consciousness is created by the brain, we are unable to derive this consciousness, and all we can do in fact is to map out the correlations i.e when a brain is in a particular state, some specific mental state inevitably occurs, then we have given up on reductive materialism (and indeed on the idea that science completely describes reality (because it misses out consciousness)).

To repeat: if brain states fix mental states, but these mental states are "unexpected" given the interactions of the ultimate parts of the brain, then we have given up on reductionist materialism.

What you would then be saying is that brains create minds/consciousness, but the way it does this is not something which can be understood, in principle, by an exhaustive knowledge of the brain's ultimate components and their interactions.

In short you would be espousing non-reductive materialism, or epiphenomenalism (I would argue they're the same).



It's bad in the sense that you're giving up on the idea that science can wholly explain all things in terms of the ultimate physical entities.

It's good in that you're facing up to reality.
DEMON!!!

This (and the lead-in) assumes that accurately mapping brain states to specific aspects of consciousness is not the same as deriving consciousness, which again is the demon defining materialism as impossible. Why is it impossible to derive it by mapping it perfectly? If you are potententially able to get 100% correlation by reducing it to exact mental states, then how is that different from deriving consciousness?

Sure you can argue it is not pragmatically possible, but you cannot argue that it is impossible under materialism.
 
You have to remember, folks, that Ian is an idealist. He thinks that optical illusions work backwards, that the green dot is real and the pink dots aren't.


Yes, this makes no sense whatsoever. Don't complain to me.
 
It's bad in the sense that you're giving up on the idea that science can wholly explain all things in terms of the ultimate physical entities.

It's good in that you're facing up to reality.


Surely science is an ATTEMPT to explain (and therefore predict) everything in terms of the ultimate physical realities. Whether it can or not, I would suggest, is currently unprovable, all we can know for sure is that atm, it does not. If it did, science would be finished. In the sense of completed. But saying it CANNOT possibly do so needs some pretty solid evidence which I can't imagine anyone coming up with. And that isn't an argument from incredulity, I'd be happy to see some sort of decent proof. It is all getting a bit metaphysical, methinks.

I can't remember which Douglas Adams book starts with that bit about if we ever discover everything to be known, the universe will disappear and be replaced with something even more bizarre and inexplicable.
 
Actually, I could never get a grip on how Ian thinks the senses work. I think he once said they were driven by the Metamind, since there is no external reality. But I may have that wrong. I'm pretty sure that he thinks that if you see green, then there is green, because color is what you see, not some property of an object. I don't know what that says about a color blind person.

Please explain, Ian.

~~ Paul
 
DEMON!!!

This (and the lead-in) assumes that accurately mapping brain states to specific aspects of consciousness is not the same as deriving consciousness, which again is the demon defining materialism as impossible. Why is it impossible to derive it by mapping it perfectly? If you are potententially able to get 100% correlation by reducing it to exact mental states, then how is that different from deriving consciousness?

As I said, take the analogy of the clock. We can have snapshots of various internal states of the clock and correlate these to, say, when the alarm goes off. But we don't understand why the clocks innards produce the alarm.

So we have isolated that the alarm only sounds with this particular specific internal state, where all the cogs and wheels etc are arranged in a particular way. We haven't derived the alarm from this internal state because that would require tracing the cause and effect chain leading to the ringing of the alarm.
 
...
I can't remember which Douglas Adams book starts with that bit about if we ever discover everything to be known, the universe will disappear and be replaced with something even more bizarre and inexplicable.
He went on to say that there's another theory that this has already happened. :D
 
As I said, take the analogy of the clock. We can have snapshots of various internal states of the clock and correlate these to, say, when the alarm goes off. But we don't understand why the clocks innards produce the alarm.
Why not?

So we have isolated that the alarm only sounds with this particular specific internal state, where all the cogs and wheels etc are arranged in a particular way. We haven't derived the alarm from this internal state because that would require tracing the cause and effect chain leading to the ringing of the alarm.
Which is what we've done.

If we have a sufficiently detailed map, we see not only states, but the transitions between states over time. So in fact we have traced the chain of cause and effect. The only possibly way around this is to invoke the demon.
 
Surely science is an ATTEMPT to explain (and therefore predict) everything in terms of the ultimate physical realities. Whether it can or not, I would suggest, is currently unprovable, all we can know for sure is that atm, it does not. If it did, science would be finished. In the sense of completed. But saying it CANNOT possibly do so needs some pretty solid evidence which I can't imagine anyone coming up with. And that isn't an argument from incredulity, I'd be happy to see some sort of decent proof. It is all getting a bit metaphysical, methinks.

But this whole debate is metaphysical. It is emphatically not a scientific issue.

Take the example of a clockwork clock. Let's suppose that its internal mechanism is so vastly complex that we cannot figure out why it does what it does i.e we cannot work out why the hands move and keep time and why the alarm sounds.

But of course there's absolutely no reason to suppose why we shouldn't be able to figure it out eventually. There's absolutely no reason to suppose that magic is involved here.

But suppose someone comes along and says the movement of the clock hands is consciousness.

Be very careful what I'm saying here. I'm not saying that the movement of the clock hands produce consciousness, I'm saying that this someone is saying the hand moving process literally is consciousness.

And this someone is also a reductive materialist.

Let's imagine I was having a conversation with this guy:

II: How can you be a reductive materialist? How on earth can you derive consciousness from this clock?

Materialist: Just because we cannot figure out how the clock works now, doesn't mean to say that it works by magic. Eventually we will figure out how it works.

II: Yes yes yes, I understand that we might be eventually be able to work out how the hands move and keep time, but what about the consciousness?

Materialist: The hands moving is consciousness.

II: Eh . .you mean that the hands produce consciousness. So it would just be a brute fact about reality that certain physical processes generate consciousness?

Materialist: No I don't mean that. The hands moving literally is consciousness. Once we have figured out how the hands move, then we have therefore reductively explained consciousness.

II: But this is absurd! Look, we can work out that a wheel moves another wheel etc, leading eventually to the movement of the hands, I agree about that. But how can you thereby claim you have shown that we can derive consciousness?? You've done no such thing man! How do we know the movement of the hands is accompanied by conscious experiences??

Materialist
You're begging the question by impliciting supposing consciousness is not literally the process of clock hand moving.


So that's the basic argument except we're talking about human beings rather than clocks. We can see this issue is not a scientific one but rather a metaphysical one. It's not a scientific one because, for the sake of argument, we are granting that it is possible in principle to completely explain all the workings of human beings including all their behaviour.

But I'm saying this hasn't explained consciousness at all because our behaviour is simply a reult of physical events occurring in our brains. We have no more explained consciousness than we have explained that a clock is conscious when we have worked out how its hands move.

A reductive materialist however claims we have explained consciousness by definition. We have explained consciousness because consciousness is literally the same as the physical processes occuring in the brain.

PS I'm getting a phishing alarm warning when I used the preview because of the word "atm". WTF??? (I'm using deepnet explorer)
 

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