And at this point I think assuming the police are lying when the topic is "do I need to save my ass because I murdered someone" is perfectly reasonable.
I think it is perfectly reasonable to assume the cops have, or will, lie about the shooting. I believe it is reasonable to assume the cops have lied about seeing/hearing gunshots, etc. at this point, I don’t believe it is reasonable to believe the cops are lying about having a reason to flip on their blue lights. It is only if you be;I’ve that shooting the guy was the intended outcome that that makes any sense. Police stopping motorists, even African America motorists for no reason at all isn’t such a thing that it should be anyones default. Yes, it happens, yes, it is regrettable, yes it is a violation, yes I think it should result in jail time for the cop when they do it. But no, it really doesn’t happen often enough for it to be reasonable to assume it absent any evidence.
You yourself said that the police no longer deserved the "benefit of the doubt" so what you are arguing now is confusing me.
We do not need to extend any benefit of the doubt. Because cops stopping citizens for no reason is actually rare, because a similar vehicle was stopped legally recently (which might alone make the stop constitutional), because the guy ran, it is considerably more likely that the stop was constitutional than that it wasn’t.
And I do not mean this as a "gotcha" or "You said this ergo I win" sort of thing. I'm trying to actually pin down where the disagreement is.
I do not conflate your position with pondering turtles.
Because right now we are at.
- It's a constitutional stop if you assume the police are telling the truth.
- It's an unconstitutional stop if you assume the police are lying.
That isn’t where we are. There are clues separate from the police saying the stop was constitutional, while there are no clues that they are lying.
And you seem to be as some weird intersection of "The police don't deserve the benefit of the doubt but the burden on proof is still on us to prove they are lying." So I'm confused and I just want clarification.
Is there some nuance between "deserve the benefit of the doubt" and "who has the burden of proof on who's story to default to?" that has gotten lost in the noise?
There is.
Because the police do not often stop people for no reason at all, because there is nothing to indicate the cops lied about this stop, because they might reasonably have matched this car to the description of another car, because the guy ran as soon as the lights came on, I see there is no reason at all to assume the stop was unconstitutional.
Remove the cops statement from the equation…..they never said the stop was for vehicular violations…..they never said anything at all. It still would be more likely than not that the stop itself was constitutional. I need not rely on the word of the cops at all to reach a tentative assumption that the stop was constitutional, simply because the vast majority of them are and there is absolutely no indication at all that this one wasn’t.