The name(s) of the document(s) that define your government, which is what I asked for in the first place, which you finally have done. Thank you.
"Finally"? You asked where you could find them, and I provided.
Just so I'm sure I understand, you're telling me that the older document, while of historical significance, is not the defining document of your government and should not be considered the final authority of your government as it exists today.
Correct.
Further, any discrepancies between the 1859 and 1953 documents are rendered moot because the 1953 version is now the correct authoritative document.
Correct. 1849, not 1859.
I am merely reading the sources that you have provided for me. For example, from the Constitutional Act of 1953:
PART III
§ 12
Subject to the limitations laid down in this Constitutional
Act, the King shall have supreme authority
in all the affairs of the Realm, and shall exercise
such supreme authority through the Ministers.
§ 13
The King shall not be answerable for his actions;
his person shall be sacrosanct. The Ministers shall
be responsible for the conduct of government;
their responsibility shall be defined by statute.
§ 14
The King shall appoint and dismiss the Prime
Minister and the other Ministers. He shall decide
upon the number of Ministers and upon the distribution
of the duties of government among them.
The signature of the King to resolutions relating
to legislation and government shall make such
resolutions valid, provided that the signature of
the King is accompanied by the signature or signatures
of one or more Ministers. A Minister who
has signed a resolution shall be responsible for
the resolution.
To ask the same question you have asked me, how much of this is to be taken literally? Or even seriously? The above passage says that "the King shall have supreme authority in all the affairs of the Realm". Is that literally true or not?
What part of "and shall exercise such supreme authority through the Ministers" don't you understand? Why did you leave it out?
Your quotes says that it is the Ministers (government) who exercises the authority of the affairs of the Realm. In §3 (which you must have read), it says:
§ 3
Legislative authority shall be vested in the King and the Folketing conjointly. Executive authority shall be vested in the King. Judicial authority shall be vested in the courts of justice.
The legislative authority is exercised through the government only.
Do you understand this?
§ 19
(1) The King shall act on behalf of the Realm in international affairs, but, except with the consent of the Folketing, the King shall not undertake any act whereby the territory of the Realm shall be increased or reduced, nor shall he enter into any obligation which for fulfilment requires the concurrence of the Folketing or which is otherwise of major importance; nor shall the King, except with the consent of the Folketing, terminate any inter-national treaty entered into with the consent of the Folketing.
The King can't make any agreements that requires the Folketing (parliament)'s consent.
Do you understand this?
Here's the part where the King signs the laws:
§ 22
A Bill passed by the Folketing shall become law if it receives the Royal Assent not later than thirty days after it was finally passed. The King shall order the promulgation of statutes and shall ensure that they are carried into effect.
Do you understand this?
§ 26
The King may cause money to be minted as provided by statute.
This is crucial, because one of the most important powers the King historically has had was the right to mint money. This is not within his power anymore; the Parliament makes the laws regarding this.
Do you understand this?
§ 31
(1) The members of the Folketing shall be elected by general and direct ballot.
The people votes for the politicians who get a seat in the Parliament. The Parliament makes the laws. The King signs them.
Do you understand this?
(2) Rules for the exercise of the suffrage shall be laid down by the Election Act, which, to secure equal representation of the various opinions of the electorate, shall prescribe the manner of election and decide whether proportional representation shall be adopted with or without elections in single-member constituencies.
The Election Act decides how to form Parliament, Government etc.
Do you understand this?
§ 32
(1) The members of the Folketing shall be elected for a period of four years.
(2) The King may at any time issue writs for a new election, with the effect that the existing seats shall be vacated upon a new election, except that writs for an election shall not be issued after the appointment of a new Ministry until the Prime Minister has appeared before the Folketing.
(3) The Prime Minister shall cause a general election to be held before the expiration of the period for which the Folketing has been elected.
While the King
may call for an election, the PM - who is found by popular election -
has to do this, at least once every 4 years.
Do you understand this?
§ 33
The Folketing shall itself determine the validity of the election of any member and decide whether a member has lost his eligibility or not.
This means that the King cannot dismiss any member of the Parliament.
Do you understand this?
§ 35
(1) A newly elected Folketing shall assemble at twelve o’clock noon on the twelfth weekday after the day of election, unless the King has previously summoned a meeting of its members.
(2) Immediately after the proving of the mandates the Folketing shall constitute itself by the election of a President and vice-presidents.
The Parliament constitutes itself. It is not the King who does this.
Do you understand this?
I can easily go on, but I don't want to overburden you. If you have more points you are unsure of, read the
whole document first.
Some of my various points are that:
- It doesn't matter what the DoI says concerning "God" or "Creator" in relation to the religious state of the US government. That document has no more legal standing than the Constitutional Act of 1859 does now. Less actually, if you consider that the DoI was never a legal document.
- It doesn't matter what the DoI says concerning "God" or "Creator" in relation to the Founding Fathers religious intent for the US government. There are much more legally binding documents that state their position much more succinctly. The US Constitution's First Amendment is one. The 1797 Treaty of Tripoli is another (my emphasis):
"Art. 11. As the Government of the United States of America is not, in any sense, founded on the Christian religion; as it has in itself no character of enmity against the laws, religion, or tranquillity, of Mussulmen; and, as the said States never entered into any war, or act of hostility against any Mahometan nation, it is declared by the parties, that no pretext arising from religious opinions, shall ever produce an interruption of the harmony existing between the two countries."
- All documents are subject to interpretation, including your Constitution and our DoI. Holding our DoI to the strictist literal sence when it isn't even a binding legal document and your own Constitution to a more liberal interpretation when it is a binding legal document is an unfair and inappropriate double standard.
As it should be clear by now, we disagree.