chrispy
Graduate Poster
Forgive me if this has already been covered but I'm wondering about the position of mens rea or whatever you call it in America in this case. My first thought was that surely this wasn't murder because she didn't intend to kill him and so the necessary mens rea was absent, however I then wondered about the parallels with the Oscar Pistorius situation where it didn't matter whether he thought the person in the toilet stall was an intruder or not because even if he did it was murder to shoot to kill an intruder who wasn't directly threatening him and when he had the means of escape.
So how do they get mens rea into this one? By declaring that even if she had been in her own apartment it was still murder because he wasn't directly threatening her and she had the means of escape? How does this work in US law?
Abs while we're at it, why hasn't she taken a plea deal to culpable homicide or whatever the US equivalent is?
The prosecution did a really good job of asking Guyger directly if she was trained to shoot to kill. She said yes. They followed with, "when you fired your weapon did you intend to kill your target?" (paraphrase). She waffled abit and then replied, "yes". So when she fired, she intended to kill