Archie Gemmill Goal
Banned
- Joined
- Nov 18, 2015
- Messages
- 8,324
No. The referendum that was put to the UK electorate was whether the UK should remain in or leave the EU. There was no Scottish etc. referendum so there is no Scottish etc. result.
Well one way of solving the problem I guess is to put your fingers in your ears and shout LA LA LA but I would not recommend it.
But this point has nothing to do with what I posted earlier and you responded to.
The thinking on this (the pound) remains as muddle-headed as ever.
It doesn't matter if it is historically English or not. It doesn't matter if it is shared now or not.
For two independent countries to have a currency union they have to both independently want to. If one does not wish to, the currency union does not and could not exist. No way, no how. To assert otherwise and bleat about history or shared assets is very silly indeed.
Muddle-headed indeed as you go on to show because you remain the only person in this thread, this forum or perhaps even the entire planet who is actually arguing that anyone could be in a currency union that they did not consent to.
If it is nonsense you will be able to point me to this apparent secret Scottish referendum the Scottish had whilst the rest of the UK were having theirs?
Scotland voted in the referendum and the result was calculated. Nobody is saying it has any legal standing -but then neither does the UK one - but it clearly communicated the position of the Scottish people on the matter. The position of the Scottish Government is also quite clear.