Missing the presumption of innocence
The word has a definition. Most people here believe that at some time long ago the police should have realized they were innocent. In some cases the police could actually know who did it and frame someone else.
I would say that many if not most cases of framing are not done by the police but by people that actually did the crime. One of the reasons I've disagreed with people saying that the PLE framed Amanda from day one or two or three is precisely because I didn't believe they thought she was innocent. Did they use techniques from the interrogation to magical DNA work that could be police misconduct? Absolutely.
Could a case of police misconduct result in an innocent person being convicted? Yes, but the polices weren't framing them.
Police rarely frame but often use techniques to get their man that are untoward (maybe we can debate the def.) and may result in an innocent person being convicted.
There is a stark difference. So when people here misuse the word framing to describe misconduct it skews the discussion.
Yes let's just through words because some people misuse them.
We had a go round on the word jimmy as a poster said the door was jimmied meaning propped open. When I said that isn't what jimmied meant and proved it much the same happened with a obscure definition brought in.
Now what do you think it means?
Think propping should qualify? Well people made similar arguments as you making now about use of jimmied.
If you don't like the real definition of frame framing framed then don't use the word. I have no problem using it correctly. Or jimmied.
What you are missing is the presumption of innocence.
Legally, "suspects", "accused", and even "defendants" are presumed innocent in, for example, Italy.
So if the police fabricate or misrepresent evidence against some the police believe
may be guilty - a "suspect" or "accused" or "defendant" - but who is
legally innocent, because that person has not been
finally sentenced, is that, by your definition, not framing?
Is that because, basically, you do not agree with the concept of presumption of innocence?
That is what I perceive in you attempts at "precise" definition.
The word "frame-up" or "frame" has been in use since 1889 (according to
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/frame-up), to mean:
: a plan to make an innocent person appear to be guilty of a crime
1: an act or series of actions in which someone is framed
2: an action that is framed
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/frame-up
By your definition, if the police believe someone is guilty, then any misconduct against that person is not a frame-up. However, this non-use begs the question of whether the police belief implies the person is actually guilty. By the legal principle of presumption of innocence, the person the police believe to be guilty is
presumed innocent. In fact, many persons believed to be guilty by police are indeed actually innocent. In either case (actual innocence or presumed innocence), misconduct against the person to make that person seem guilty is actually a "frame-up" or "framing".
Note that in the definition, the
plan to commit misconduct is also included. Thus, people referring to the intent to commit misconduct or signs of such intent or conspiracy to commit misconduct should not be considered "wrong" to refer to such planning as "framing".
Respectfully, I would hope you look carefully at your interpretation of "framing" or "frame-up" to resolve the apparent contradiction in it, in the sense that your interpretation apparently ignores the presumption of innocence. Your interpretation implicitly declares that police "suspects" or those police believe to be guilty are not "innocent" but indeed they are, by the presumption of innocence. (This "presumption of innocence" may be what Dirty Harry didn't agree with.)