my two cents...
This is my first ever post, so please bear with me, I will likely ramble.
I have actually taken the time to read EVERY post on all 14 pages before posting a reply and I have found this entire thread quite interesting, but utterly repetetive. I happen to fall on the side of those who believe the employer here is wrong, but currently within his LEGAL rights under our current system of laws.
Several people have brought up non-smoking and hypothetical examples in order to make arguments in this thread and have been shot down for doing so because they are "meaningless" or "not relevant" to the issue at hand (smoking). Hypothetical situations and non-smoking examples are perfectly fine here, because the issue at hand here is not smoking, its activity "X". Activity X can be any activity an employee engages in during their own private time which does not affect their job performance or the company itself (i.e. conflict of interest, wearing company peraphenalia while screaming profanities at passersby on the street, etc...) and is also LEGAL. It does not matter if this activity is voting, sex, smoking, making paper airplanes, or eating bagels. What matters is that it is a prohibited (by the company) LEGAL activity an employee is engaging in on his/her own time. It is also irrevalent HOW the company determines that the employee is engaging in said activity (wire tap, video survailance, blood samples, etc...), only that they can find out. Here is what is having thus far.
Activity X - any LEGAL activity (smoking, eating, watching tv, consentual sex, etc...) unrelated to job performance which does not put company interests at risk (this definition could use some work, but its a start and you get the gist of what it means).
Employee 1 - engages in activity X solely on his own time, in his own home.
Employer 1 - bans engaging in activity X for all employees and states any employee found to be engaging in activity X will be fired. A test exists which can be used to determine if an employee is engaging in activity X. Fail the test, you are fired, refuse the test, you are fired. You may also quit, of course.
QUESTION(s):
Is is ok for the company to ban activity X for employees on their own time, and then to fire them if they engage in said activity?
-the answer here should be a resounding no for everyone. Some are going to say I am leaping down a slippery slope here, but really, where do you draw the line? How many personal activities can be censored before its NOT ok to do so anymore? Now I have seen the arguments that a particular activity, smoking, can increase health care costs, thus making it a good candidate for banning and good reason to dismiss an employee. There are two answers to that one. First, Ladyhawk posted an answer that no one has attempted to refute, concerning whether having smokers on staff would actually increase costs, which it does not. Secondly, there are hundreds of relatively common ailments, diseases, and afflictions which require constant funding to treat (diabetes, arthritis, hypoglycemia, asthma, etc...). These are all a drain on healthcare costs, but no one has a problem with them (and they shouldn't).
Is it coercion to threaten dismissal for engaging/not engaging in activity X.
Basically, the company says, we are changing the conditions for your employment with us. You must stop engaging in activity X or be fired. Is this the same thing as stating, you must BEGIN engaging in activity X or be fired. For the intents of this argument, this is essentially the same thing, BEGIN or DESIST engaging in activity X or be fired. So here it is, is there ANY type of activity which would qualify as activity X (assuming my definition is acceptable), where is would be considered coercion to threaten dismissal from their job for performing/not performing said activity? If there are any such activities that fit this criterion, then all activities that qualify as activity X (including smoking) would fit as well.
None this changes that fact that the employer currently has the legal right to dismiss its employees for smoking, but that doesn't mean he SHOULD have that right. If its coercion, its wrong, if its not coercion, then the employer is right.
That is all for me. Perhaps my argument above is fatally flawed, but I do not care. I am willing to take that chance. I am sure I also missed some fundamental piece of logic or totally ignored a relavant argument, just let me know what it was. Please feel free to dissect and tear apart what I have said. I look forward to any feedback, good, bad, insulting, or even degrading. You wont hurt my feelings. Thanks in advance.