So attacking civilians to damage the economic power, is acceptable...
"Acceptable"? Please to explain where I said anything is "acceptable"?
...when the nation you are at war with is trying to take your sovereignty? But doesn't this fit into exactly what those who perpetrated 9/11 believed?
I really don't know how I could be anymore clear. I'll try bullets. Maybe that will help.
- I don't claim any moral superiority of anyone over any other (the morality of America targeting civilians is THE SAME as 9/11).
- The discussion at hand is about what is and is not a terrorist state.
- I claim that having a defined goal (forcing the Germans to surrender) and following accepted conventions tends to belie the notion of being a terrorist state.
- Oh, and for the record, the perpetrators of 9/11 had no clearly defined achievable goal OTHER THAN TERRORISM.
- What the Allies did, in many instances, was immoral, IMO.
Ok, so these points will be ignored also. I really don't know what more to do.
Got it they have no legitimate beef with American policy, they are just insane nut jobs so unlike the noble Army Air Corps of WWII when they incinerate civilians it is a bad thing.
Strawman. Please to demonstrate how this non-sequitur follows from anything that I have said?
More bullets? {sigh} Ok.
- 9/11 did not have a defined and achievable objective beyond instilling terror.
- The only possible outcome was to instill terror which was an end to itself.
- The strategies of the Allies during WWII did have a defined and an achievable objective of getting the Germans to surrender (German did give up btw).
Now you can argue the carpet bombing ineffective and that's a fair argument but what you can't argue is that America was bombing JUST to instill terror as opposed to the Taliban and 9/11 where terrors was an end to itself.
Allies: Terror was NOT an end to itself.
9/11: Terror WAS an end to itself.
And it had the same objectives as incinerating Tokyo, destroy will to fight, damage the economy and so forth. So if they had been able to incinerate several American cities then it would be legitimate because it would be a real military objective?
If they had a military that was capable of invading America and given that 9/11 and other strategies were capable of bringing about the objectives, YES, DAMN STRAIGHT. Of course. It would follow.
I'm guessing that won't mean anything to you but let me repeat it for others.
If the Taliban had a professional army, was capable of launching a full scale attack and their strategy of targeting civilians was capable of achieving a military objective in order to get America to surrender or accede to their demands then their efforts would not be strictly terrorist in nature. Of course we now know that such efforts are of little demonstrable military value so in the end such tactics are but a means to harm civilians and nothing else.
I'm not sure how much more clear I can make it. Ask me again though. I've got nothing better to do than to argue ad nauseam. And since my points fall on deaf ears I'm not sure I have any other option.
So that is why we firebombed all those cities in Japan, for the Jews. I thought it was just that firestorms are so much fun, it is great when fleeing women catch fire as they are running away.
?
No clue what you are on about.
Yes, but with very little care about the massive way it was used until recently. Look at Mr. Wizard, now he was in the European theater so it was not where America was using firebombing as much, but by modern standards would he be a war criminal? Relatively likely, as attacking civilians to destroy an economy seems to be out of favor at the moment.
Again, no clue. If there is an argument in there I'm want to find it. Could you parse this for me?