BurntSynapse
Thinker
- Joined
- Jul 8, 2008
- Messages
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Somewhere far from the certainty you clearly possess.BurntSynapse:
Where is your intellectual curiosity?
Somewhere far from the certainty you clearly possess.BurntSynapse:
Where is your intellectual curiosity?
You know, the more I think about it, the more this seem to be the root.
You find a tool, or theory, or analogy, or idea, that sounds cool. The thought process being "Wouldn't it be great if...?" The scientist will research this, test it if the research pans out, and then toss it aside (perhaps with a sigh) if it's found to be groundless.
The crackpot refuses to let go of this tool/theory/idea. Instead of following science, and modifying or discarding the hypothesis if necessary, they instead re-interpret (read: selectively ignore/report) the data so it does support their theory. The obvious inconsistencies are explained away by "well, there'd be answers if BigBrotherScience didn't block research." There's little digging into the history (to find that the experiments were done, and aren't done anymore not because of any conspiracy, but because they showed no useful results), and often little knowledge of the underlying theories and research into the current model.
Basically, it seems they fall in love with their own ideas, and refuse to change them.
As an aside, threads like these are wonderful (if a bit frustrating for some participants), because so many knowledgeable people take the time to post the details of the real science, including links, references, mathematics, explanations, and so forth. It's a great resource for people like me; not a physicist, but fascinated by the science (I often describe myself as an interested layman). I can't follow all the math, but enough to get an idea of things.
Just thought I'd throw that atta-boy in at the end, guysI would name names, but as long as the thread is I'm afraid I'd miss someone. You all know who you are
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Maybe that sounds good in management-ese. Maybe it still sounds good after saying it ten times. But not one physicist here knows what you're talking about. You have provided zero concrete examples; you just keep repeating the same management-ese.The risk from errors in undocumented assumptions typically underlying persistent problems.
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I would guess that the answer will no because your implication is about mathematics and ben m was talking about physicsIs this a reasonable implication to draw from your statement?
To me, this suggests a significant percentage of of physicists would have re-derived things like Euclid's use of integer dimensions (inherited from counting in prehistory) as appropriate for modern cosmology.
Is this a reasonable implication to draw from your statement?
Originally Posted by Perpetual Student
BurntSynapse:
Where is your intellectual curiosity?
Somewhere far from the certainty you clearly possess.
To me, this suggests a significant percentage of of physicists would have re-derived things like Euclid's use of integer dimensions (inherited from counting in prehistory) as appropriate for modern cosmology.
Is this a reasonable implication to draw from your statement?
(Martin Gardner's classic, Fads and Fallacies in the Name of Science, written in 1952 and 1956)
- He considers himself a genius.
- He regards his colleagues, without exception, as ignorant blockheads. Everyone is out of step except himself....
- He believes himself unjustly persecuted and discriminated against....
- He has strong compulsions to focus his attacks on the greatest scientists and the best-established theories. When Newton was the outstanding name in physics, eccentric works in that science were violently anti-Newton. Today, with Einstein the father-symbol of authority, a crank theory of physics is likely to attack Einstein in the name of Newton....
- He often has a tendency to write in a complex jargon, in many cases making use of terms and phrases he himself has coined....
Seems like Martin Gardner's first and second criteria -- claiming to be the only one with any real knowledge of physics, with all one's colleagues being ignorant blockheads.You only learn physics when I'm around, Hellbound. I explain things in a way you can understand, and I back up what I say with references to Einstein etc papers and to evidence. Nobody else does that.
Martin Gardner noticed in his chapter "Down with Einstein!" that many physics crackpots have a hostility to complicated mathematics. They thought that one shouldn't need complicated mathematics like what Einstein worked with. Which makes it rather difficult to be an Einstein follower and an opponent of mathematics in physics.And come on, you don't "follow the maths enough to get an idea of things".
Seems like the next step in Martin Gardner's fourth criterion, to oppose recent theories while claiming the authority of Newton and Einstein.Oh, and have a read of Woit's blog about why there's so much crackpot physics. You're on the wrong side of the crackpot fence mate.
Now, we have Farsight arguing that the electric field, E, is not a field -- as silly as that sounds.
Do you seriously think the posters with whom you're having this discussion aren't perfectly aware of this?See the dynamics of the electromagnetic field section of the Wikipedia article on the electromagnetic field, and note this:
"In the past, electrically charged objects were thought to produce two different, unrelated types of field associated with their charge property. An electric field is produced when the charge is stationary with respect to an observer measuring the properties of the charge, and a magnetic field (as well as an electric field) is produced when the charge moves (creating an electric current) with respect to this observer. Over time, it was realized that the electric and magnetic fields are better thought of as two parts of a greater whole — the electromagnetic field."
Of course it has an electric field. And a magnetic field. Which are better thought of as two parts of a greater whole - the electromagnetic field. Exactly as the article you quote explains.A charged particle has an electromagnetic field. It doesn't have an electric field
See the dynamics of the electromagnetic field section of the Wikipedia article on the electromagnetic field, and note this:
"In the past, electrically charged objects were thought to produce two different, unrelated types of field associated with their charge property. An electric field is produced when the charge is stationary with respect to an observer measuring the properties of the charge, and a magnetic field (as well as an electric field) is produced when the charge moves (creating an electric current) with respect to this observer. Over time, it was realized that the electric and magnetic fields are better thought of as two parts of a greater whole — the electromagnetic field."
A charged particle has an electromagnetic field. It doesn't have an electric field.
Some people have unfortunately had their heads separated from their bodies. You simply cannot do this with an electromagnetic field. You cannot create an electric field which does not appear to be a magnetic field when you move through it. In similar vein you cannot create a magnetic field that doesn't appear to be an electric field when you move through it. For this reason the word "aspect" is typically used instead of "part". In similar vein you can't have a particle that has a magnetic field only - you can separate the North and South poles of a magnet, and you can emulate this in CMP, see this - but magnetic-monopole particles cannot exist because the field concerned is the electromagnetic field.edd said:The electromagnetic field has two parts, both of which are also fields, which are connected in well defined ways. Is that really such a big problem? I mean, you wouldn't say that my head doesn't exist because it's better thought of as part of my body, would you?
I don't put up barriers or show unwillingness to learn something new. You do.Farsight and BurntSynapse:
Where is your intellectual curiosity? We can all develop misconceptions and follow dead ends, but when someone is available and willing to share knowledge, why do you put up barriers and withdraw into your preconceived world? What happened to your willingness to learn something new?
That's what you should do. Now go and look up the electromagnetic field. Do your own research, and you will find that what I'm telling you here is indeed correct. The electron has an electromagnetic field. One field. Maxwell unified electricity and magnetism a hundred and fifty years ago.Perpetual Student said:I suggest you attempt to open your minds to what is being offered here. There is a vast resource of information available to confirm what you can learn here. Let the light in!
None of this means that in a given frame you cannot usefully distinguish the electric and magnetic fields. Also magnetic monopoles are not observed to exist and Maxwell's Equations are traditionally written to reflect that, but nothing about the electromagnetic field prevents them from existing. It may be that they don't but this is not some logical consequence of the unification of electric and magnetic forces.Some people have unfortunately had their heads separated from their bodies. You simply cannot do this with an electromagnetic field. You cannot create an electric field which does not appear to be a magnetic field when you move through it. In similar vein you cannot create a magnetic field that doesn't appear to be an electric field when you move through it. For this reason the word "aspect" is typically used instead of "part". In similar vein you can't have a particle that has a magnetic field only - you can separate the North and South poles of a magnet, and you can emulate this in CMP, see this - but magnetic-monopole particles cannot exist because the field concerned is the electromagnetic field.
I posted this on your other thread; it clearly applies here also:See the dynamics of the electromagnetic field section of the Wikipedia article on the electromagnetic field, and note this:
"In the past, electrically charged objects were thought to produce two different, unrelated types of field associated with their charge property. An electric field is produced when the charge is stationary with respect to an observer measuring the properties of the charge, and a magnetic field (as well as an electric field) is produced when the charge moves (creating an electric current) with respect to this observer. Over time, it was realized that the electric and magnetic fields are better thought of as two parts of a greater whole — the electromagnetic field."
A charged particle has an electromagnetic field. It doesn't have an electric field.
A frame isn't something that actually exists. You cannot point up to the clear night sky and say look, there's a reference frame. It's an abstract thing. Instead of saying "in your frame", it's better to say "in your state of motion". When you have no relative motion you might deem an electromagnetic field to be an electric field. Your "test charge" moves linearly. But when you move through it you start to reveal its true nature. The force on your test particle is no longer just a linear force. And you haven't created any new field at all, you've simply moved.None of this means that in a given frame you cannot usefully distinguish the electric and magnetic fields.
Unicorns and fairies are not observed to exist either.edd said:Also magnetic monopoles are not observed to exist
Yes it does. It's the electromagnetic field. An electron has an electromagnetic field. You can no more have a magnetic monopole than you can have an object which has a front but no back. Try cutting a solenoid in half, or a bar magnet.edd said:and Maxwell's Equations are traditionally written to reflect that, but nothing about the electromagnetic field prevents them from existing.
It absolutely is. A charged particle has an electromagnetic field. It's electric charge is a misnomer because it doesn't have an electric field, it has an electromagnetic charge. Magnetic charge is a fallacy that arises from failure of understanding.edd said:It may be that they don't but this is not some logical consequence of the unification of electric and magnetic forces.
To be clear I'm not suggesting magnetic monopoles do exist. Unlike unicorns and fairies though, they are predicted by some physical theories (as topological defects in cosmology for example), are explained away by other physical theories that are well motivated for other reasons (inflation) and would arguably make Maxwell's equations more symmetric.Unicorns and fairies are not observed to exist either.
An electron has an electric monopole (charge) and a magnetic dipole moment. It's not exactly symmetric in that respect in an interchange of electricity and magnetism. However, Maxwell's equations do show a remarkable symmetry between electricity and magnetism (which is what in the absence of electric and magnetic charges allows electromagnetic waves to pop out so easily, of course). edit: I also meant to mention the neat argument by Dirac about the existence of monopoles and the implied quantisation of electric charge - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetic_monopole#Dirac.27s_quantization , not least as if Dirac of all people is considering magnetic monopoles you might want to sit up and think that they are not completely ruled out by Maxwell.Yes it does. It's the electromagnetic field. An electron has an electromagnetic field.
It's patently wrong to say that a charged particle has an electromagnetic and not an electric charge. It's why in the traditional formulationIt absolutely is. A charged particle has an electromagnetic field. It's electric charge is a misnomer because it doesn't have an electric field, it has an electromagnetic charge. Magnetic charge is a fallacy that arises from failure of understanding.
I haven't made any errors relating to the Aharonov-Bohm effect. Your link merely leads to a post where you make a claim and ask questions that we all know the answers to.
Well, blow me down. E+S have calculated the effect of the solenoid's field on interference fringes generated by electrons! That's pretty quantum mechanical, n'est-ce pas?Ehrenberg and Siday (1949) said:One might therefore expect wave-optical phenomena to arise which are due to the presence of a magnetic field but not due to the magnetic field itself, i.e. which arise whilst the rays are in field-free regions only. Consider now an arrangement as in Figure 3. O denotes a point source of electrons which is focused by the lens M at the point P. Through the pair of slits separated by l a set of interference fringes will arise so that the distance of the nth maximum from P is given by d = bλ0n/l. If, now, a magnetic flux is established normal to the plane of the paper through the area a, then, according to (43), the order of interference at any point of the focal plane is changed by
N = {λ0(Hρ)}-1∫∫Hndσ, _ or with (35) by _ N = (e/ch)∫∫Hndσ. _ ......(50)
Thus, a flux of 3.9 ✕ 10-7 gauss cm2 is required to change the order of interference by 1, and half of this flux will change the maximum at P to a minimum.
It is very curious that equation (50) associates a phenomenon observable at least in principle with a flux; one expects a change of flux, but not steady flux, to have observable effects. The effect has, however, a certain analogy in the existence of a permanent current in a superconducting ring due to a magnetic flux through it.