Why do so many people mistake language for reality?

I'm aware that you don't mean all philosophers, but I have to say this. As a philosophy major myself, I think the two most important questions are: "What do you mean exactly?" and: "Is that really the case?"

Of course, those questions apply 'outside' philosophy as well. Which is why philosophy is important, or at least useful. (NB. I did not say 'only philosophy' nor 'most important'.)
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Last century suffered 100s of millions of needless deaths due to the "philosophy" of "From each according to his ability, to each according to his need".
I regard philosophers as parasites on society, feeding off the easily fooled with bumper sticker solutions to serious problems.
 
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I regard philosophers as parasites on society, feeding off the easily fooled with bumper sticker solutions to serious problems.

I'm sure actual philosophers find this charming, if unfounded (or at least founded on ignorance)

Foucault would be irate.
 
"The referent is not the thing." Alfred Korzybski

I was going to say that people sometimes mistake concepts for objects. That's the first step in order to know that semantics aren't right or wrong, but standards we use to refer to objects. It doesn't matter if it's door or fafjap. What matters is whether you understand what I mean.

When I realize that someone is emotionally attached to using a word with a certain, non conventional meaning, I focus on what they mean instead of what that word is supposed to mean, and also try to clarify that their emotional involvement with the meaning of that word is... well... meaningless.

For example, there is dispute regarding the meaning of atheist. There have been several threads in this forum where someone says "atheism is a dogmatic position because it says that there is no God". Or something similar. Then, someone answers "no, atheists lack believe in God, which is different". After a while, there's discussion about the "true definition", and finally (hopefully) someone points out that, although it would be useful in this case to unify criteria in order to avoid misunderstandings, the definition is not a problem. We can skip that. We were not debating about definitions. We now understand what each other means when they say atheist. What was the point again?
 
Still .... it's part of how a person learns what *does* hold value and what doesn't .... through the ages, and also through one's own intellectual development. Solipsism, for example, might be mind blowing to a junior high student the first time they consider it .... but 25 years later it's meaningless when you're paying child support :)

True. :D

By the way, I don't think solipsism is mainly caused by mistaking language for reality. I think of it more like an epistemological dead end, not necessarily (and not in my experience) caused by a bad use of language.
 
I'm sure actual philosophers find this charming, if unfounded (or at least founded on ignorance)

Foucault would be irate.
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Can we dismiss the philosophies of all religions in a swell-foop or two, to get to the idiot political philosphies?
Of course we can
Any student of theology -must- conclude that religions are the collected ravings of disturbed individuals.
They all include the Golden Rule, but then attack that with heresies and apostasies which give the religion the power of life or death over the adherents and those who won't adhere.
All over the brain farts of lunatics.
Political philosophies... all of them are bad, with capitalism the least worst of all of them.
Again, a sincere application of the Golden Rule seems to be missing in all of them.
 
Foucault would be irate.
Ya, but what's that guy's opinion worth? He never picks a place to take a stand on anything, just keeps going back and forth or around in circles.

There have been several threads in this forum where someone says "atheism is a dogmatic position because it says that there is no God". Or something similar. Then, someone answers "no, atheists lack believe in God, which is different".
What did the word I've made green there sound like in your mind? Is the last consonant voiced (the sound that's usually represented by V) or not (the sound that's usually represented by F)? Yes, this is just a linguistic question, not intended to be philosophical.

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On the actual subject: the reverse... or converse or obverse or inverse or whatever it is... is also annoying and annoyingly common. In these cases, instead of acting like something must be real/true because it can be expressed in words or there's some catchy way of wording it (of which I think "argument-by-famous-quote" is a particularly annoying and vacuous subset), people act like something must not be real/true because it's hard to describe or define. People pull this one out not just by asserting the thing's indefinability or indescribability themselves, but also in the form of a demand for a definition/description from an opponent. That way, it's often used not even to exactly deny the thing's existence/truth directly so much as as a debate tactic against someone who accepts that it exists or is true. They seem to hope to get to either put the opponent in a defensive mode, make the opponent appear to struggle with basic concepts just because defining things can be hard no matter how well the meaning is known, trick the opponent into saying something that can then be nitpicked indefinitely & obsessively, or just haul the discussion off the rails to a tangent that distracts from the actual subject entirely.
 
Nice - but, what if you don't understand the concepts of child support? :)
Go shopping for the right size jar I suppose :)

True. :D

By the way, I don't think solipsism is mainly caused by mistaking language for reality. I think of it more like an epistemological dead end, not necessarily (and not in my experience) caused by a bad use of language.
Yes but if was really a dead end you reached, how could you ever return from it to explain it to someone? Yeah try and knock that one down with your "reasoning".*
(please don't respond to that for god's sakes)*
 
"What happens when an unstoppable force meets an immovable object" paradox
This is not a paradox.

The answer is:

1) immovable objects do not exist

2) unstoppable forces do not exist

3) if they do exist, however, their direction is changeable

4) in case of a relatively unstoppable force, in a colloquial sense, some destruction will probably happen, or if the objects are relatively unbreakable, then the movable one will bounce from the immovable one
 
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I'm aware that you don't mean all philosophers, but I have to say this.

This is why in my OP is used the phrase "Coffee Shop Philospher." Philosphy isn't always useless, but I just have little patience for silly semantic traps parading as wisdom.

By the way, I don't think solipsism is mainly caused by mistaking language for reality. I think of it more like an epistemological dead end, not necessarily (and not in my experience) caused by a bad use of language.

Oh my problems with solipsism only begin with language. I hate it as a philosophy.

This is not a paradox.

True perhaps it's not an "According to Hoyle" paradox, but it's usually presented as a lingusitic trap that is supposed to lead to some great intellectual Eureka moment when it's, as you note is nothing more then a silly semantic trap that is really very easy to answer.
 
Okay obviously this is somewhat a response to the plethora of beyond even solipsist level navel gazing posts that have hit the board recently, but it did lead me to a serious train of thought because the "I can't describe it linguistically, ergo it doesn't exist" argument is used a lot as a seriously philosophical argument.

Basically there seems to be this idea amongst some people that everything can't use the language to describe perfectly can't exist,

Hmm? Can't say I've heard that used about an entitry, but I have used myself the unrelated "if you can't even describe a logical argument for it, then that conclusion is by definition unsupported". Which is true. If you can't even tell me why I should take a claim seriously, then I don't and I won't. It's just elementary skepticism.

At any rate, language is more flexible than you seem to think. We even managed to find ways to describe stuff we can't even visualize with our minds (e.g., quantum mechanics), or abstract mathematical stuff, or abstract algorithms, etc. Between words being definable as needed if you need more, maths, etc, I do think that any concept that is coherent enough in someone's mind CAN be described one way or another.

Words are just names for ideas or concepts. There is no such things as having a clear idea of what an entity is, what it does, and how would you know that, yet running into some fundamental language limitation that prevents you from expressing it. Even if you don't have a name for its colour, then you can give its wavelength. If you don't have a word for its movement pattern or orbit, you can just describe it with maths. And that in turn lets you define the words you need.

I find that those that retreat behind "words aren't enough" really, don't have enough of a coherent idea of what they're trying to sell.

and everything they can use the language to describe has to exist.

Hmm? Did anyone actually claim that? Because from my experience even schizophrenics who see ghosts trying to enter through their nose, are still aware that other people's words can describe other stuff that doesn't really exist. If nothing else, some god they don't believe in.

For instance a while back I dismissed the classic "What happens when an unstoppable force meets an immovable object" paradox as meaningless. It doesn't hold up to even a brief thought. It's just a semantic trap, nothing more. The concept of an "immovable object" is dependent on there not existing an "unstoppable force" and vice versa. It only rates thought because our language is capable of defining the concept of an unstoppable force and simultaneously defining the concept of an immovable object, something our reality can't actually do. There is no deep mystical puzzle that we can solve to understand the universe better.

Depends on how it's used, I suppose. Humanity took a long time to really understand what mathematical infinity actually means. Figuring out or illustrating what happens when you divide infinity by infinity is actually pretty important for the meaning of the concept. Plus, if nothing else, it can also be used to illustrate exactly what you say there: both can't really exist.

I guess if anyone actually takes either as an existing entity just because it can be described, sure, then they're majorly delusional.

On the other hand, I've never heard anyone claim that. So, can you provide an example?

I dismissed solipsism the same way. Stripped of all its philosophical baggage a solipsistic question basically boils down to "What would reality be like if reality didn't exist?" Well it wouldn't... problem solved. Again only the language makes it possible, by being capable of creating linguistic concepts like "beyond reality" or "outside reality" when by definition reality is already an all encompassing concept.

While solipsism is stupid per se, it does illustrate some concepts that help understand how the brain works and what exactly do you perceive as reality.

As a trivial example, someone can perceive entities existing only in their brain. E.g., in a hallucination. What would reality without a physical reality behind it be? Well, what would a floating pink elephant be without an actual physical floating pink elephant behind it? It can be very real in severe alcohol withdrawal.

This is even more trivial for false or distorted memories. Something can be very real in your mental past reality, although it never existed in the real reality.

Conversely, at any given moment there are things around you that you don't really "see", although they're there. And no amount of effort or hypnosis or whatever will remember them (although it could create false memories instead) because really they were discarded very early in the processing chain.

There are a lot of things about one's perception of the world that most people imagine to know, but actually are grossly wrong. Distinguishing between the actual reality and what our brain sees around, is actually more important than you seem to think.

Granted, though, solipsism is probably not the most productive way to go about it.

Basically a lot of "coffee shop" philosophers (and some more educated and experienced ones) are doing this. They take advantage of the fact that it's possible to create linguistically paradoxical statements and act like that gives them some kind of intellectual weight.

Again, I'm not aware of anyone who actually takes entitites for real just because they can describe it. Please do provide an example.

They might however illustrate the edge cases or some important concepts.

And if you don't want to explore such concepts, fine, go do something else instead. But it seems silly to basically rant against anyone having more intellectual curiosity than that.
 
Hmm? Can't say I've heard that used about an entitry, but I have used myself the unrelated "if you can't even describe a logical argument for it, then that conclusion is by definition unsupported".

Ironically I generally try not to get too overtly hung up about the language. The English language is, and this is being rather charitable, a blunt instrument at times. I think we've all found ourselves struggling with the right way to word a though and I am not and will not ever fault anyone for that within reason.

What I'm talking about is deliberately forming an argument in a confusing way and using that confusion as part of your argument.

"Can you have a clapping sound with only one hand in motion?" is an honest direct question.

"What is the sound of one hand clapping" is a childish semantic trap. Mainly because it assumes an answer exists. It's phrased in such a way as to make the person asking it "win" if you answer honestly, that the question doesn't exactly work.

It's just a pseudo-intellectual version of the gradeschool taunt where you asked people "Have your parents you're gay yet?" and demand they give you a Yes or No answer.
 
The unstoppable force stops and the immovable object moves. Like the old Newtonian balls you get in offices in the 80s.

In any case, not quite sure what you are complaining about - you seem to have been exposed to certain smug people who cite paradoxes and don't really explore them? Or something?

Linguistic paradoxes I find rather fascinating, as Twiler says, as they show the limits of language, which in turn shows limits of human perception, cognition, how we take short cuts etc.. The sorites paradox I am particularly fond of in this regard.

But I don't think I've ever cited it with my nose in the air and a half-smile denoting my inherent superiority. No, my accent does that job just fine.
 
Ironically I generally try not to get too overtly hung up about the language. The English language is, and this is being rather charitable, a blunt instrument at times. I think we've all found ourselves struggling with the right way to word a though and I am not and will not ever fault anyone for that within reason.

Yes, but nevertheless, if you actually have a coherent thought there, eventually you'll find some way to put it into words or clarify the parts you left out when asked about it.

What I'm talking about is deliberately forming an argument in a confusing way and using that confusion as part of your argument.

Again, it depends how it's used and what for. If the whole argument is, for example, about the limits of a concept or the fuzziness of a concept or whatever, then illustrating it can be the right thing to do. E.g., if I wanted to illustrate equivocation, then "a polar bear is a cartesian bear after a coordinate transform" is intentionally nonsense, because it has to illustrate a logically invalid misuse of language in the first place.

But again, having a clear example of exactly who was using it wrong and in exactly what argument, would help more than just the abstract notion that someone somewhere somehow is doing it wrong.

"Can you have a clapping sound with only one hand in motion?" is an honest direct question.

"What is the sound of one hand clapping" is a childish semantic trap. Mainly because it assumes an answer exists. It's phrased in such a way as to make the person asking it "win" if you answer honestly, that the question doesn't exactly work.

It's just a pseudo-intellectual version of the gradeschool taunt where you asked people "Have your parents you're gay yet?" and demand they give you a Yes or No answer.

Yes, but that's one of the things that you hear more in generic rants against it, than in anyone actually using it like that. There's a whole class of supposed ridiculous stuff some people say, that actually exist almost exclusively in canned rants about what some unspecified other people say, rather than actually being said by anyone. Just like medieval theologians arguing about how many angels fit on a pin head, or airhead celebrities going "I wish I had the willpower to stay that thin too" about children in Somalia, or homosexuals planning to destroy marriage, or atheists wanting to remove crosses from public cemeteries. You always hear that someone else is saying that, but there is a strange dearth of actually hearing someone saying it.

So, again, exactly who was actually saying that there actually is such an entity as the sound of one hand clapping, and in what argument?
 
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Last century suffered 100s of millions of needless deaths due to the "philosophy" of "From each according to his ability, to each according to his need".
I regard philosophers as parasites on society, feeding off the easily fooled with bumper sticker solutions to serious problems.

Prove it, and by that I mean prove that people were actually practicing this philosophy, and suffering because of it. Having someone label their movement with a tag that implies this philosophy is not enough to negate the philosophy, it just means people were hopeful that the label meant something that it did not end up meaning. Magic words, yet again.
 
What did the word I've made green there sound like in your mind? Is the last consonant voiced (the sound that's usually represented by V) or not (the sound that's usually represented by F)? Yes, this is just a linguistic question, not intended to be philosophical.

Well, actually I'm not a native English speaker, and that's a mistake I've made several times before. Similarly, sometimes I may say this instead of these. Thanks for pointing that out. That makes me more aware of my mistakes.

To answer your question (even if I think it's not the topic of discussion here) yes, the phonetic similarity is one of the reasons I commit these mistakes.
 
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Prove it, and by that I mean prove that people were actually practicing this philosophy, and suffering because of it. Having someone label their movement with a tag that implies this philosophy is not enough to negate the philosophy, it just means people were hopeful that the label meant something that it did not end up meaning. Magic words, yet again.
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A king is performing at his maximum ability.
His lackeys afford him his needs.. the riches, the clothes, the hot and cold running women..
It's not communism, it's monarchy.
A union. Members can't be required to perform a job better than the least qualified in the classification.
All are paid the same.
Not communism either.
Applied communism resulted in the ablest being indistinguishable from the ablest monarch or capitalist, but with dire consequences for the unwashed masses far in excess to the dire consequences of the masses of the monarch or the capitalist, of which there have been many times more examples.
Are there any successful communist states with the freedoms of capitalism at all?
China has been ensnared, and is going for the buck quite well.
 
This is why in my OP is used the phrase "Coffee Shop Philospher." Philosphy isn't always useless, but I just have little patience for silly semantic traps parading as wisdom.

There's a much more basic problem that I see philosophers' having (including academic philosophers who drink beer with me) and that is the insistence that language is the only way to think.

Richard Feynman told a story once. When he was a kid, he said to another kid, "I figured out that thinking is just talking to yourself inside your head." The other kid said, "Oh, yeah? Think of the shape of a crankshaft. Now tell me the words you used to think about it."

This led to a series of informal experiments involving counting and trying to do something else at the same time. Some people could do some things, and others could do others, and there was a correlation with how they counted. There was a difference between people who counted "one, two, three," imagining the words, and people who counted imagining pictures.

User interface designers sometimes talk in terms of modalities: symbolic, visual, and tactile. People use all three, but most people use one most of the time. A majority of men prefer symbolic, and a majority of women prefer visual (if memory serves). A small minority--I've heard 5%--prefer tactile. I seem to be one of the weirdos.

Perhaps philosophy appeals preferentially mostly to people with such a strong symbolic modality that they find it difficult or impossible to imagine anything else. Maybe the insistence that it applies to ontological questions that some of them have is a kind of blindness.

Oh my problems with solipsism only begin with language. I hate it as a philosophy.

Solipsists are fun as chew toys. You can abuse them, and when they get upset, you can say "I'm a figment of your imagination. Why do you imagine me so mean?"

True perhaps it's not an "According to Hoyle" paradox, but it's usually presented as a lingusitic trap that is supposed to lead to some great intellectual Eureka moment when it's, as you note is nothing more then a silly semantic trap that is really very easy to answer.

At the extremes, this involves defining things into existence, which people do a lot with god-concepts.

In any event, after Russell, Gödel, Turing, and Church, anybody who expects not to find contradictions is in for a world of brain-hurt.
 
I wouldn't say thinking necessarily happens in words, but nevertheless, I find that if you can picture something clearly in your head -- and doubly so if something actually exists -- then you can find words to translate its defining properties into.

E.g., ok, if you're a visual type, maybe you'll picture that crankshaft in your head. But you can still translate that into words. Maybe it looks like something else you can picture in your mind, and you can tell me what other thing it resembles. You can tell me if it's shiny, and about how big it is, and a bunch of other stuff. Worst case scenario we can sit together with a piece of paper and a pencil and you could help me draw one. Which still involves verbal communication, if assisted by a visual aide.

Ok, maybe you're the tactile type. Then you can tell me what something feels like to the touch. Is it smooth? Is it rough? Sticky? Cold? Again, being the tactile type, no doubt you have a reasonable 'database' in your head of other stuff that you can compare to, in that aspect. Does it feel like fir tree bark? Satin? Smooth plastic? Etched glass? Or what?
 
epepke said:
Richard Feynman told a story once. When he was a kid, he said to another kid, "I figured out that thinking is just talking to yourself inside your head." The other kid said, "Oh, yeah? Think of the shape of a crankshaft. Now tell me the words you used to think about it."
One aspect of my job is doing transects--I hike around a desert looking for fossils or fossilferous sediments. There are always three lines of thought going on in my head: counting my paces (roughly 1k paces per half mile for me), looking for fossils (which requires the ability to interpret what you see on the desert floor), and looking at the geomorphology (is it best to go on the top of the hill, or the bottom? is that green stuff this formation or that one?). Only one--the counting--is done via words.

This is one thing I've always liked about Objectivist epistemology: all concepts can, eventually, be supported by precepts. There's no dichotomy between language and reality, as it's assumed that any valid definition relates, directly or indirectly, to things you can see, hear, taste, smell, or feel.

The real issue is whether the person speeking considers conciousness to creat reality, or to percieve it. People who consider language to be reality fundamentally believe that conciousness creates reality. Considering that that notion is false, it's not surprising that sillyness ensues.
 

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