Belz...
Fiend God
That is my question. I don't know the answer.
Well the answer is no. It's still about
How could you not know the answer? You can think by yourself, can't you?
That is my question. I don't know the answer.
Okay, I understand your point but I still think its weak. I think slavery was the only 'state's right' they were willing to go to war over.Well stated.
Consider yourself spited.
Well the answer is no. It's still aboutbabiesslavery.
How could you not know the answer? You can think by yourself, can't you?
That doesn't mean I have the tools to reach an answer that I think is adequate.
Philosophically speaking, what does "about" mean?
If slavery consisted of providing food, housing and clothes which weren't cheap, why were slaves an "asset"? Were the slaves giving something to their owners in return for the clothes and food, which in fact more than paid for these provisions? Did the fact of their being an asset completely extinguish the fact of their being human? In a country founded on the right to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness, one might think they would as human beings have been entitled, without qualification or impediment, to release from personal servitude, rather than be evaluated as an "asset being seized".In the south, you had to buy your labor force and then provide for it re food, housing, clothes, etc. Hardly a cheap proposition.
While in the minority, my view has always been it was more over states rights, being fairly represented in the Government, and essentially seized assets/property. Many in the south did not own slaves...but fought based on the public opinion they were not being given a fair deal; ie. "who is Washington to tell me I can't do this?"
Could the war have been prevented, maybe. If the Government had offered compensation to those whose assets were being seized that would have off-set the economic blow and made the case for being more fairly represented in the Government swaying public opinion (in the south).
While in the minority, my view has always been it was more over states rights, being fairly represented in the Government, and essentially seized assets/property. Many in the south did not own slaves...but fought based on the public opinion they were not being given a fair deal; ie. "who is Washington to tell me I can't do this?"
http://www.civilwar.org/education/history/primarysources/declarationofcauses.htmlOur position is thoroughly identified with the institution of slavery-- the greatest material interest of the world. Its labor supplies the product which constitutes by far the largest and most important portions of commerce of the earth. These products are peculiar to the climate verging on the tropical regions, and by an imperious law of nature, none but the black race can bear exposure to the tropical sun. These products have become necessities of the world, and a blow at slavery is a blow at commerce and civilization. That blow has been long aimed at the institution, and was at the point of reaching its consummation. There was no choice left us but submission to the mandates of abolition, or a dissolution of the Union, whose principles had been subverted to work out our ruin. That we do not overstate the dangers to our institution, a reference to a few facts will sufficiently prove.
Could the war have been prevented, maybe. If the Government had offered compensation to those whose assets were being seized that would have off-set the economic blow and made the case for being more fairly represented in the Government swaying public opinion (in the south).
Claudia Goldin estimates that the cost of having the government buy all the slaves in the United States in 1860, would be about $2.7 billion (1973: 85, Table 1). Obviously, such a large sum could not be paid all at once. Yet even if the payments were spread over 25 years, the annual costs of such a scheme would involve a tripling of federal government outlays (Ransom and Sutch 1990: 39-42)!
States' right to do what, exactly? It's not a minority view, it's a deeply misleading and incorrect one.
First, there is no mystery, each of the States that seceded offered Declarations. Mississippi's was perhaps the most direct, but read through them. Slavery was THE issue:
Furthermore, slavery was the fundamental value in the economy, so professions that weren't directly engaged in the slave trade still depended on the institution - bankers generating loans to buy/sell, lawyers drawing up contracts, doctors keeping the slaves capable of working...
The entire Southern economy depended on slavery.
Is there a difference between saying it is "about slavery" and it is about "about the economy" that in this case happen to be slaves?
Do you?
I don't know, that is why I am asking.
A SCOTUS ruling against the slave states triggers secession
Would the south have attempted to secede then, unknown; would it have eventually happened, likely IMO. There was talk of succession as early as the late 1830s, over tariff disputes, movements to annex Texas and start a war with Mexico.Okay, I understand your point but I still think its weak. I think slavery was the only 'state's right' they were willing to go to war over.
If Lincoln had been a member of a party in favor of keeping slavery do you think the south would have seceded? Every other states right grievance they had would still be there.
Slaves were a "asset" as in property, the same as a horse was; they were bought, sold, traded.If slavery consisted of providing food, housing and clothes which weren't cheap, why were slaves an "asset"? Were the slaves giving something to their owners in return for the clothes and food, which in fact more than paid for these provisions? Did the fact of their being an asset completely extinguish the fact of their being human? In a country founded on the right to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness, one might think they would as human beings have been entitled, without qualification or impediment, to release from personal servitude, rather than be evaluated as an "asset being seized".
See above.States' right to do what, exactly? It's not a minority view, it's a deeply misleading and incorrect one.
That doesn't mean I have the tools to reach an answer that I think is adequate.
Philosophically speaking, what does "about" mean?
I don't agree. It was a SCOTUS ruling in favor of slavery that pushed the US towards civil war. Dred Scott (which Buchanan interfered in to get a unanimous decision) ruled that not only was slavery legal, but that all laws in all states restricting slavery were illegal.
This turned the wait-and-see anti-slave people into a full-on abolitionist movement. Political change became the only way to end slavery. The SCt. certainly wasn't going to do it. When the abolitionists took a hard stand, the South (including southerners who otherwise didn't much care) hardened their position as well.
In Kansas, the two groups formed competing governments and started terrorist wars against each other. Buchanan chose: 1) to recognize the pro-slavery government; and 2) to do nothing whatsoever about the violence even when people begged him to.
TL;DR version: Buchanan sucked, war became inevitable within his first 100 days.
The Federal Govt was dominated by the north, a Government that was asserting its authority through federal law abolishing state laws they disagreed with. Lincoln was the icing on the cake so to speak, elected as President without a single southern electoral vote.
Essentially the rest of what you stated ties to economics, which while slavery is part of that discussion, it is not the entirety of it. Southern states that felt disenfranchised and dominated by the union they participated in, run by a President they didn't vote for, and saw no chance of growing their economic base through expansion....expansion that would have been dominated by the north and its industrial base.
I agree that compensation was not possible; my comment was more hypothetical as southern states were likely never to agree to a compensation value set by the Government (which was dominated by the north).
Philosophically speaking? What are you talking "about"?
Is there a difference between saying it is "about slavery" and it is about "about the economy" that in this case happen to be slaves?
Oh yes, slaves gave their owners their labor and, let's not forget, they gave them also baby slaves, i.e., either more potential slave labor or merchandise. And yes, slaves were seen as objects, things, not as humans; see the Dred Scott decision, in which SCOTUS ruled that Scott had no standing to sue. Let's all be glad that these views belong solidly to the past (well, at least among a great majority of people).If slavery consisted of providing food, housing and clothes which weren't cheap, why were slaves an "asset"? Were the slaves giving something to their owners in return for the clothes and food, which in fact more than paid for these provisions? Did the fact of their being an asset completely extinguish the fact of their being human? In a country founded on the right to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness, one might think they would as human beings have been entitled, without qualification or impediment, to release from personal servitude, rather than be evaluated as an "asset being seized".
Seriously, Bob?
Yes, it's very different both substantively and rhetorically.
I thought you were going to leave it up to me. My answer I came to was no.