First, let's look at the reparations. Those were 20 to 25% of the French GDP (
link) and had to be paid within 3 years - for a war that lasted less than a year and left both countries relatively unscathed.
By comparison, the German war reparations in 1919 amounted to 83% GDP that could be paid at a much longer term, for a war that lasted 4 years and in which Germany willfully destroyed French and Belgian industry and infrastructure, while Germany's own industrial base was unharmed. Really, I never understood the German whining about the height of the reparations.
Then there's the territorial changes. France lost 20% of its industrial base with Alsace-Lorraine. Apart from Upper Silesia, the territorial loss of Germany in 1919 had no big economic relevance.
Lastly, in 1871, Germany kept parts of France occupied until the reparations were paid. In this respect, Versailles was much more lenient. France only occupied the Rhineland after Germany defaulted on its payments.
Oh, before you make a fool of yourself, it was
France who started that war,
Not relevant.
Lying for Dolfie, again?
There was a new kid on the block now. And that was what caused all the damage and suffering of the next 75 years.
Indeed, because of that new kid's Sonderweg.
The reason why Germany had to invade these countries was because Britain started to prepare for the invasion of Norway first, with the aim to cut of the iron ore supplies from Sweden to Germany.
Evidence for invasion plans, please? Only minelaying.
And what has this to do with Holland? Looking at a map, it doesn't lie on the route from Norway to Germany. Let's also add Belgium and Luxembourg to the list.
There is no distinction for you between a piece of paper and the reality of a true invasion, is there?
You repeatedly failed to give an answer to this. So, why a plan at all for invading Switzerland?
For your information, large parts of France were never occupied by the Germans. Do you understand why? Because these territories could not be invaded from the sea, that's why.
I see we can add the fact that Nazi Germany occupied Vichy France in November 1942 to the list.
It is indeed a too facile explanation. Behind Versailles stands the real issue, namely that France and Britain never accepted the emergence of a 80 million state of very talented people in the first place. It had overthrown the entire balance of power in Europe. That was the real cause of WW1, resulting (via the Jews/Balfour) in Versailles, resulting in WW2.
Ever those Jews, but you never can name them. Aren't you confusing them with the lizard people?
Fact of the matter is that Germany, after Bismarck's dismissal, wasn't ruled by talented people, but by a dimwitted emperor and militaristic types like Tirpitz who continuously veered to the brink of war.
Why should Germany give a peep if the English army invades Kent?
Another one for the list. Under Versailles, the Rhineland was to be demilitarized.
Any idea what language they are speaking in Vienna?
And what language do they speak in Antwerp?
