
Yeah - largely for the purpose of setting other men free - not land-grabbing.
Emancipation wasn't even a war-aim in 1861. The war was about the union - for and against. Was there to be one nation, from sea to shining sea, or a patchwork? That was most definitely a land-issue.
The question of slavery being extended into the West was a proximate cause, but the underlying difference was over the scope of federal authority. Had the South been beaten quickly, not one slave would have been freed by the war.
What was the purpose of Europe's two 20th-century bloodlettings?
The purpose? That assumes Intelligent Design of history. In the Great War, Germany's
aims were to annexe Russian Poland, destroy the Russian Army as a credible threat and prevent economic encirclement by France, Britain and Russia. France's were to counter the above, while getting revenge for 1871 and stopping Germany's inexorable rise to economic dominance of Europe. Austria's was to obliterate Serbia, thus becoming imperial successor to the Ottomans in the Balkans. Russia's was to counter Austria, thus becoming imperial successor ... Britain's was get a decent pop at the Kriegsmarine.
Many purposes. WW2 in Europe was basically a continuation of the Great War after a pause for breath.
No, I meant what do you believe are the causes of the big differences between Europeans and Americans? Again, my hypothesis may be a bunch of Rule 8; I'm curious to hear other explanations (and maybe this would make for a good separate thread...)
Appearances to the contrary, I don't have an explanation for everything.
The 'Murrican Experience has been one without significant constraints on resources, until quite recently when it finally filled up. Europe has been filled up for a long time, and constraints on resources - particularly land - are long-standing. The 'ME has often been one of lawlessness, whereas the European one has been one of too much law. Europeans are not used to taking the law into their own hands, because there are authorities and police to enforce it. This has not always been the case in the US.
Of course, this applies to white 'Murricans, from European migrant stock. The experience of involuntary migrants from Africa has been different. For them there were extreme constraints, and they never did get their 40 acres-and-a-mule. A lot of them only got the vote forty years ago. (Some "democratic model" that is.) The experience of Hispanics in the territory annexed from Mexico is different again. The Chinese experience in the West is inscrutable, but certainly different. And the aboriginals have had a very bad experience.
Not a complete explanation, but it's a start.
