RichardR
Master Poster
- Joined
- Nov 21, 2001
- Messages
- 2,274
OK, I accept that a falling dollar would mean oil was cheaper elsewhere, and this would increase demand. However I question how much this increase would be. For example, in Europe the price of oil is typically only 25% of what the consumer pays – 75% is tax. A 25% reduction in the cost of oil would therefore only represent less than a 7% drop in prices. And even then, surely a proportion of consumption is virtually fixed (in the short term anyway): some journeys are necessary / industry uses the power it needs for the level of economic activity prevailing.Drooper said:So you agree that following a $US depreciation, every non-dollar buyer will get oil cheaper if the Dollar depreciates. That will create excess demand at the prevailing Dollar denominated price. From Econ 101, excess demand leads to rising prices (in Dollars), until a new equilibrium is reached at a higher Dollar price. QED.
I don't see how, as the dollar falls, the price of oil would automatically rise at the same rate the dollar falls. Wouldn't it rise by only a fraction of that?