Sorry I'm late to the party. Below is my take. I didn't answer the poll because the wording is even more horrendous than that of the Amendment itself.
That said...
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
The way I read it, this only makes sense if the right to bear arms is assumed a priori to exist.
There's no sense in talking about infringing on rights you don't even believe exist in the first place. There's no sense in giving justifications for not infringing on rights, if you don't believe the rights exist in the first place.
If the Founders didn't think the right to bear arms existed, they would have written this amendment to specify a privilege or a duty:
"A well-regulated militia, etc... the privilege to bear arms shall be allowed to [all citizens meeting certain qualifications]."
Or;
"A well-regulated militia, etc... the duty to bear arms shall be enforced upon [all citizens meeting certain qualifications]."
If the 2nd Amendment had specified a duty, I suspect it probably would have been repealed by now, and replaced by an amendment specifying a privilege, and probably with much more extensive restrictions than we enjoy under the actual amendment.
So. The right of arms exists. It's an inalienable human right, alongside the rights of speech, association, etc. I think that's the only reasonable way to read the Amendment's reference to the right itself.
I think we have a substantial body of precedent, and numerous Supreme Court decisions, outlining the contours of the Federal government's authority to infringe upon rights in general. I think that those precedents can and should be equally applied to the right to bear arms, which is equal in value to the other rights recognized by the Constitution and by the Court.
What else? The Amendment says the right shall not be infringed. That's good; rights should generally not be infringed. It also gives a specific reason: Because "a well-regulated militia, etc." That's good, too; if rather obsolete.
So the real question is, by failing to enumerate other reasons for not infringing upon the right, or by failing to a blanket statement such as "the right to bear arms shall not be infringed for any reason", does the Amendment implicitly permit infringing on the right for any other reasons?
I say it does not permit infringing on the right for other reasons. If the reason given in the Amendment becomes obsolete--and I think if we're being honest, it has--the right still falls under the general protection against infringement, afforded to all the other rights we recognize.
Thus, the road to infringing upon this right lies not through invalidating the militia argument, but through the the same arguments that permit limited infringement of other rights, or through removing the Constitutional recognition of the right itself.
Finally, I firmly believe that the right to bear arms is an fundamental human right, whether or not it is recognized by this or that constitution or government.