ElMondoHummus
0.25 short of being half-witted
Ok, I know I'm late to this thread, and others have already said it in during the course of debate, but I think the point needs emphasis: MIHOP was defined from the beginning to mean that it was the US Government who "Made It Happen On Purpose". As Brainster pointed out, that's the way Haupt popularized it, and that's been the implicit meaning the entire time the phrase has been coined.
I do not understand Femr's disingenuousness; saying that the actual acronym MIHOP doesn't include the government is like saying the Arab and other races in the Levant cannot be antisemetic because they themselves are also semetic. It's ignoring that the actual denotation of the term "antisemetic" has always singled out the Jewish from its original inception. Ditto MIHOP: There was never, ever any vagueness as to the US government's inclusion in the term's accusation. The original definition was in regards to the contrasting question of whether the US government merely laid back and allowed 9/11 to happen (LIHOP), or actively took part in planning, directing, and participating in the events. It was always a direct accusation of the government from the very beginning. Femr is distorting the origin of the term, as well as the usage up through today.
This is not in doubt. Pretending that an alternate definition is in fact the one that's always fitted is deliberately lying. Either that, or it's a personal yet honest mistake, but regardless, it is not correct to say that the common, agreed upon usage of the term has been agnostic on goverment involvement. Pretending that's the case ignores its inception and use since then. If this is an honest misunderstanding, then it ends here. If it's an attempt to distort, then it was wrong from the beginning. Regardless, there is no escaping that the originators of the term have been using it as an accusation against the US government from the beginning, and there's no denying that it has been the exclusive meaning of the term since then.
I do not understand Femr's disingenuousness; saying that the actual acronym MIHOP doesn't include the government is like saying the Arab and other races in the Levant cannot be antisemetic because they themselves are also semetic. It's ignoring that the actual denotation of the term "antisemetic" has always singled out the Jewish from its original inception. Ditto MIHOP: There was never, ever any vagueness as to the US government's inclusion in the term's accusation. The original definition was in regards to the contrasting question of whether the US government merely laid back and allowed 9/11 to happen (LIHOP), or actively took part in planning, directing, and participating in the events. It was always a direct accusation of the government from the very beginning. Femr is distorting the origin of the term, as well as the usage up through today.
This is not in doubt. Pretending that an alternate definition is in fact the one that's always fitted is deliberately lying. Either that, or it's a personal yet honest mistake, but regardless, it is not correct to say that the common, agreed upon usage of the term has been agnostic on goverment involvement. Pretending that's the case ignores its inception and use since then. If this is an honest misunderstanding, then it ends here. If it's an attempt to distort, then it was wrong from the beginning. Regardless, there is no escaping that the originators of the term have been using it as an accusation against the US government from the beginning, and there's no denying that it has been the exclusive meaning of the term since then.
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