I have no idea. Maybe every top level Scientology meeting is totally taken up with debate about Thetans, I don't know. I do know that no one says L Ron Hubbard didn't exist, even though there is a lot of mythology around him.
That would be a case of affirming the consequent. If X then Y, doesn't mean you can flip it around and pretend that also if Y then X. In that case, if a bunch of people have reliable information that character X existed, then sure, they don't go saying he never existed. But you can't flip it around. Doubly so when really it's compounded by an argument from ignorance: we don't have all arguments those did, just the ones that theologians were arguing against.
But to go deeper into why the "but they didn't say back then that he didn't exist" is silly in its lack of logic even when reputable authors did it:
First and foremost, it's fully irrelevant. In fact, it couldn't be a bigger non-sequitur, if it involved Snow White and Santa Claus.
What we are interested in is actual information to confirm or disprove certain events or people. Not in the unfounded beliefs of some 2nd century rabbi. Now if that rabbi claimed to have information, e.g., "yeah, I talked to the grand-niece of Jesus and she says he was no messiah", that would be
information. But just that some guy who doesn't know either way, is willing to accept a premise for the sake and scope of a discussion, WTH does that prove?
What matters is what EVIDENCE a position has, not how many uninformed people didn't challenge it.
Second, the way apologists usually make it work is by claiming that, no no no, see, there were witnesses of Jesus around, and all those people writing gospels or debating Jesus knew exactly what he did and who he was. That's when their not disputing it sounds like it means something. But actually as I've explained repeatedly, we see that not only there are no witnesses to complain about the miracles or physically impossible 3 hour long eclipse on a full moon, but there are no witnesses to even settle basic points like exactly how old was Jesus, or when was he born, or exactly what did he say or do. Not only the rabbis and philosophers arguing against the Christians have no knowledge of Jesus, but even the early Christian apologists have not much knowledge either. They're just pulling things out of the ass to fulfil prophecy.
I.e., you know why it doesn't matter what they believed about Jesus's existence? Because we don't see any evidence offered in support of that belief. You can't have a sound logical inference by taking an unsupported proposition, and using it as a premise. You can't follow an Y => Z, when Y hasn't been unsupported and hinges on an X => Y that has never been supported. As long as those people's acceptance or non-acceptance of Jesus's existence isn't grounded in some evidence to support said existence, it's unsound to use it as a premise.
Third, as IIRC Ian already pointed out in the other thread, that was not the modus operandi in those days. People also didn't dispute the existence of Zeus or Odin either. Even when IIRC Saxo Grammaticus wants to denigrate the old Norse Gods, he claims they were just some old kings. (Much as the stories about such characters as Thor or Heimdall bear no resemblance to anything a king would do.) When Justin Martyr and other early Christians attack the pagan gods and demigods, they also don't go "they didn't exist", they go "the devil did that to trick you." Etc.
Fourth, they argued their own domain. The guys arguing the theology about whether a certain character fits the requirements to be a messiah, were theologians, not census records keepers, and AFAIK nor even historians. Which directly determines that:
Fifth, they had more important stuff to argue. Whether Jesus actually existed or not, would be a relevant point if he DID qualify as the messiah and indeed God. But when, as those guys argue, the stories about him don't add up to someone they should give a damn about, then whether he existed or not is an irrelevant point for someone discussing theology (as opposed to, say, reconstructing the history of a cult.) Even if he did, so what? If he wouldn't qualify as the messiah you should worship anyway, and that's the point you're trying to make, why would you devote more pages to also disputing his existence?
But again, one can't just take their lack of showing any interest in a topic, and definitely not showing any evidence either way, as confirmation of anything.
Yes, it's as if Paul didn't know much about Jesus at all. He knows a lot about starting a cult and telling people what they want to hear. He knows how to belittle his opposition while talking himself up. The fact that those others exist and have different ideas about what Christians should do (circumcision and diet etc) suggests that Paul didn't invent the Jesus character.
It depends what you mean by "invent". Awaiting a messiah (Christ) who's the new Joshua (Jesus) was definitely there long before Paul. If you mean the actual person, then, no, you don't have enough information to base such a claim on. And we've been over both aspects before.
But they were in agreement that James and Peter etc were disciples of Jesus. They were in agreement that Paul never actually met Jesus. Paul even claims that he is a better disciple than those guys because he got all of his Jesus information in a vision. Paul's Jesus info wasn't corrupted by the flesh, like James's who spent years hanging out with the flesh and blood Jesus who took craps and wiped his arse.
Again, you don't know that. Paul in fact never says that anyone was a disciple. He doesn't even use the word disciple. Nor does he ever say that anyone there knew Jesus while alive.
He speaks of missionaries, of which were obviously more than 500, and nowhere does he mention at all that anyone even knew Jesus. He says that Jesus revealed himself to some people after his death (see 1 Corinthians 15), but that's just the thing: after his death. Paul never says that any of those knew Jesus before.
Maybe they did. Maybe they didn't. We don't know. Paul certainly isn't saying.
Why does he mention those guys in Jerusalem at all? What do they have to do with Paul if this Jesus he is selling to the Greeks and Romans is just made up? Why would the guys in Jerusalem be sending "circumcision parties" after him, telling his followers that they have to obey the Jewish Laws? What authority do these Jerusalem guys have? How can they call Paul back home and review his teachings?
First of all, and what is really the important part why I don't have to give a damn about that: it's still an argument from ignorance. If you don't know why Paul mentions them, then you don't know. It doesn't mean you can just fill in the gaps with whatever fairy-tale most appeals to you.
But again, you introduce distinctions and details that aren't there in the the text.
E.g., he doesn't say they're sending "circumcision parties" after him, he uses the term "circumcision party" for the faction that favoured circumcision. There's an important difference there.
E.g., he doesn't say that Peter or the others from Jerusalem gave his congregation ideas about circumcision. In fact he never says who was it. You can't just play madlibs with it and insert whatever names you wish into it. That's the realm of pious apologetics, not of honest historical scholarship.
Could it be that Paul wanted to claim some of their religious credibility by associating himself with them?
Maybe, but we still don't know exactly what this group believed, nor even really who they were, nor even much about exactly what Paul discussed with them. Even if they believed in some form of that new Joshua The Messiah, we don't know their details, nor exactly how many details did Paul change. One can't simply assume agreement between them and Paul, and much less between them and the later gospel writers.
If so, it would be totally counter-productive for him to preach about some guy who wasn't associated with that Jerusalem group, wouldn't it?
Maybe, but "associated" is such a weak term. Even taking it for granted that there is some association (as opposed to, say, Paul just making up the agreement or even the whole group), that's such a vague claim. We don't know exactly how closely Paul's Jesus mirrored their ideas of Jesus, much less how closely do the gospels mirror it.
Plus, by now you're going into the territory of the argument from personal incredulity.
Like someone trying to sell a new version of Scientology would have to claim some new revelation from LRon, because a revelation from anyone else wouldn't be Scientology.
Except that's both
A) a bogus analogy, since after all Paul still had the same OT to base his Jesus on. So it's nothing like that.
B) such things occasionally do happen. E.g., Mormonism introduces a new revelation that isn't from any existing Christian group in its founder's time, but it's an invented group of ancient Christians.
There are stories in the Jewish literature about Jesus being a magician and the son of a whore etc, but none about him being fictitious. To me that suggests a failed fanatic false prophet, not a fiction or allegory.
Again, that's irrelevant. What matters is what evidence those guys have, not what unsupported fanfic of their own they were willing to write on the topic. The existence of fanfic which makes Jesus a magician and SOB, is no more making him real, than the existence of gay fanfic about Spock makes Spock real.
By the time the gospels were written the place had pretty much been destroyed totally, so that would be moot except to people who wanted to make a real preacher match up with OT prophecies, wouldn't it?
Or to invent a new preacher.
If there was a body of literature pre-existing the first Superman comic which predicted a Superman from Krypton saving the world... Where would future fanboys say their personal superhero came from? Even if he actually came from Pittsburg, a hundred years later they would be making up stories about how he was really from Krypton and that time he saved his girlfriend from a big fire, he actually made time go backwards... Fanboys do that stuff.
Bingo. And a bunch of fanboys of a certain interpretation of the OT as a prophecy of the upcoming Jesus Christ, would write their Jesus Christ to match the prophecy. Just like Superman in your example.
But just as that doesn't automatically make Superman a historical person, it doesn't do that for Jesus either.
What Hebrew scipture are you talking about? I thought the NT was written in Greek.
The Tanakh, a.k.a., the Old Testament. That's the "scripture" that Paul uses, and what the later Christians quote-mine for stuff to support Jesus with.
Yes, but Mark didn't know anything about Palestine and the later writers knew even less, but some of the parables contain puns that only work in Aramaic.
Actually, in Mark's case, it's more like just his mis-understanding the Greek translation.
But anyway, I still don't see the relevance. There were early apologists who knew Aramaic. E.g., Paul himself. I just don't see how you can get from a pun working in Aramaic, to it pointing out at specifically Jesus.
It's like finding a pun that actually works in Russian in Chekov's lines in Star Trek and using it to argue that therefore it must come from a historical Chekov. Why? Why can't it simply be some Russian saying that the screenplay writer heard somewhere?