bluskool
Critical Thinker
- Joined
- Jan 22, 2010
- Messages
- 362
Yes. I wasn't really going to go into that much detail about it, because, well, let's face it, I'm not gonna convince you any time soon, but since you ask...
It's still basically linguistic conjecture and plain old supposition.
E.g., they pretty much just postulate that Mark must be earlier because it's shorter and uses a more offensive language, but both are basically non-sequiturs. The Gospel Of Peter for example was later than all others and is the most offensive of the lot.
That's not what the link I posted said. Streeter gives five reasons for Markan priority.
1. Matthew reproduces 90% of the subject matter of Mark in language very largely identical with that of Mark; Luke does the same for rather more than half of Mark.
2. In any average section, which occurs in the three Gospels, the majority of the actual words used by Mark are reproduced by Matthew and Luke, either alternately or both together.
3. The relative order of incidents and sections in Mark is in general supported by both Matthew and Luke; where either of them deserts Mark, the other is usually found supporting him.
This conjunction and alternation of Matthew and Luke in their agreement with Mark as regards
(a) content,
(b) wording,
(c) order,
is only explicable if they are incorporating a source identical, or all but identical, with Mark.
4. The primitive character of Mark is further shown by
(a) the use of phrases likely to cause offence, which are omitted or toned down in the other Gospels,
(b) roughness of style and grammar, and the preservation of Aramaic words.
5. The way in which Marcan and non-Marcan material is distributed in Matthew and Luke respectively looks as if each had before him the Marcan material in a single document, and was faced with the problem of combining this with material from other sources.
E.g., they pretty much just postulate that Luke was conflating some events with some other source, but I see no real evidence that he wasn't more like confabulating on his own. Basically that's one source that's just handwaved in.
Well, I wouldn't say he "just" postulates this. He does make an argument for why he thinks this.
Furthermore, even if I were to accept the existence of Q, the problems still aren't over. E.g., what was the element that linked Q to Mark? How did they know it's about the same guy?
Was it the name Jesus? Out of the thousands of Jesuses running around at any given time, how do you know if it's independent confirmation of the same Jesus, and not the wise sayings of a completely different one?
Or maybe it was by the title of Christos? Well, that title may be unique enough to take as proof that someone is talking about Jesus nowadays, but back then it was anything but. "Christos" simply meant "annointed", and was used in several religion for their top-level initiates, _centuries_ before the alleged Jesus. Even Pharaohs were annointed, and so were a lot of people in Mesopotamia, etc.
To see how common and widespread the "annointment" was, even one of Odin's titles, "Grim", is derived from the same proto-Indo-European root meaning "to rub". It's basically a variant of "annointed".
So did they copy the sayings and wise parables of a priest of a completely different religion actually?
Or was it maybe about a "Chrestos"? The confusion between "Chrestos" and "Christos" was even widespread among Christians for centuries to come, and some even considered it the proper form. E.g., IIRC Lactantius argued that they should call themselves Chrestians and only by confusion some call themselves Christians.
But Chrestos was an even more common title. It could mean a neophyte who wasn't annointed yet (at which point he would become a "Christos".) It could mean the person who interpreted the cryptic sayings of an oracle, or merely was in the service of an oracle. It could mean a seeker of the truth in the more general sense. At it's used even in the NT in a couple of places to mean just "good" (person.)
So if someone was confused enough, we could have Q be just the sayings of a good man (in much of the same way as Confucius just means "the master", and his analects are just what the nameless master said), or an initiate, or a seeker of the truth, or whatever.
Without actually seeing what's in that Q document, it's just an unsupported leap of faith to postulate that it's about the same Jesus and independent proof of a historical Jesus. We don't actually know what was the connection they saw between Q and Mark. And again it seems to me like some people are just too eager to pull postulates out of the hat there.
Those are pretty good points.