mumblethrax
Species traitor
- Joined
- Apr 5, 2004
- Messages
- 5,019
If objectivity is the only basis for acquiring truth, how did you acquire the truth of the statement that objectivity is the only basis for acquiring truth?RandFan said:Objectivity is the only basis for aquiring truth. There are axioms and it is ok to question those axioms. But at the end of the day we have to accept what we have but not be dogamatic in our acceptance of those axioms.
No, I'm afraid this won't do. If you take objectivity as axiomatic, you set yourself up for relativism: you cannot then say that someone who takes God as axiomatic is any less arbitrarily selecting truths than you are. You cannot use objectivity to assert objectivity.
This very neatly demonstrates that you have no idea what you're talking about. The consequence of the regress argument is philosophical skepticism; specifically, the rejection of logical inquiry altogether. No philosophical skeptic would request logical argumentation; they rejected it because of the regression.The consequences of the regress argument is skepticsim (see Regress argument Skepticsim). I AM a skeptic. The more objective the basis for your argument the more likely I am to accept it. Give me some reason. Give me some logic. Give me something.
So, as you have told me over and over again, you are a skeptic, and this is a skeptics' forum, but you have no idea what it even means to be a skeptic in the modern sense. I will risk another pathetic cry of "Straw man!" and submit that you probably meant to say that you're a scientific skeptic, that you value inquiry into the natural world using the scientific method. This position is fine and good, and I consider myself likewise a skeptic, but this form of skepticism is useless for philosophical inquiry. Logical positivism is a philosophy which modelled itself on the empiricism of science, but what I just showed above caused it to come tumbling down: you cannot prove empiricism with empiricism.
The inimitable Michael Shermer on the topic:
"But what does it mean to be skeptical? Skepticism has a long historical tradition dating back to ancient Greece when Socrates observed: “All I know is that I know nothing.†But this is not a practical position to take. Modern skepticism is embodied in the scientific method, that involves gathering data to formulate and test naturalistic explanations for natural phenomena. A claim becomes factual when it is confirmed to such an extent it would be reasonable to offer temporary agreement. But all facts in science are provisional and subject to challenge, and therefore skepticism is a method leading to provisional conclusions."
http://skeptic.com/manifesto.html
The currently fashionable and probably best theory of justification underpinning scientific knowledge is coherentism. I won't go into here.
Axiomatic, in this context, means "taken for granted." Not necessary proved correct, mind you.Now you are mixing up your concepts. How is morality axiomatic but not objective? This is just nonsense.
But moral universalism is not simply taken for granted, it is informed by science. Specifically by anthropology, neurobiology, evolutionary psychology, and so on. It posits that in the intersection of all moral system there is an underlying universal truth, a premise from which a secular ethic can be constructed.
I presented it again in my previous post.NO! I have told you that. I can't find it. You said it was the second post. I have asked you over and over to make the argument. Why won't you link to it or repost it?
From anthropology, sociobiology, neurobiology, evolutionary psychology... Moral universalism is informed by many scientific fields.FWIW, I don't at all think the Golden Rule is axiomatic. Where the hell did you get that notion? And what the hell does it have to do with animals?
Here is a good run down of where and in which cultures it occurs:
http://www.religioustolerance.org/reciproc.htm