Because I took your reply to jeremy p to be self-contained and capable of standing on its own, and that formed the basis of my reply.
I didn't mean to surrpetitously change what jeremyp was saying. I'm not sure I did, either.
My argument was based on the type of argument jeremyp was presenting and how the premise of it fails. When you remove the premise, and given that people don't always go back and read the thread of the conversation, there is a non-zero chance that people will misunderstand what I'm responding to.
As I have said, this isn't just jeremyp's post. There have been many attempts to make that argument and they fail, again and again. My post was an attempt to summarize that get it out of the way so we don't have to continually retread the same ground.
But, here we are. Again.
But gender was used in this case to predict biological sex. If a male fully passed as a woman, based on appearance, calling that male a she meant that the speaker believed the male was a female. That someone could be mistaken doesn't change the fact that pronoun use was intended to indicate biological sex.
Is it a fact, though? There is the very common misunderstanding that gender and biological sex are synonymous when, in actual fact, gender is a social construct as can be seen in evolving gender norms over time. Further, it is not uncommon, both now and in decades past, to intentionally misgender as a form of insult, despite "knowing" the person's sex.
Short of a genetic screening, MRI, and/or physical check (which can be misleading), gendered pronouns are almost always applied based on conformity to current social gender norms and self-identification.
That there existed (and still exist) socially constructed gender stereotypes doesn't mean that pronouns still weren't determined by the speaker to indicate the biological sex of the subject. Both can operate. Sometimes, socially constructed gender is determinative for some linguistic (or other) purpose, and sometimes it was (perceived) biological sex.
That's the thing. When you say "perceived" biological sex, what you're really evaluating is someone's conformity to gender norms.
Let's take a hypothetical example. You see a thin young person with long hair, a wispy mustache on their upper lip and visible hair in their arm pits, wearing a pink tank-top and shorts. Literally every one of these qualities can be present in both biological males and biological females, however some attributes do not conform with male gender roles and some do not conform to female gender roles. For whatever reason, maybe they don't speak your language, they do not self-identify their gender and let's take it for granted that you do not have this person's genetic information and have not performed a physical examination into their shorts.
The CU Boulder guidelines recommend using "they/them" pronouns since you do not know, but you insist that pronouns are based on (perceived) biological sex. So, what sex-based pronoun would you use?
But a change has happened (that's what I'm claiming and you, I think, are disagreeing) and it **seems** (please note that emphasis) that the change was made not through an organic, grassroots, up from the bottom process but is being promoted for political purposes.
I think the only change is that there has been a better understanding of sex, sexuality, and gender that has been disseminating through US popular culture and gained greater acceptance over the last 30ish years. When you get right down to it, not even the actual definitions have changed all that much, except that there is this idea that gendered pronouns retro-actively were
really "sexed pronouns" even though no one ever called them "sexed pronouns".