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Upton Sinclair, Albert Einstein, and Telepathy

CFLarsen said:


So, let's hear both your answers:

"Yes". In which case your answer will be....?

"No". In which case your answer will be....?

If the answer is yes, you have in fact read the book, then I will believe you when you say your position is the same as Einsteins. I will believe that you find the experiments significant, can see no plausible mundane answers, and are impressed by the results. Since Einstein could offer no mundane explanation I will believe that you cannot either and that we are in agreement that the evidence is compelling. I will also agree that Einstein, you, and I, all look at the experiments favorably.

If the answer is no, you haven't read the book, then I will be forced to wonder why you call yourself a skeptic. If your position is the same as Einsteins, then you can see no plausible mundane explanation for the results. And so if this is your position, without having even read the book, then in my estimation you're not being very skeptical.

amherst
 
amherst said:

Do you think all psychologists do is study self-deception?

No. Where did I say or even imply such a thing?

amherst said:
Psychology:
1. The science that deals with mental processes and behavior.

Einstein recommended the book to psychologists because they are the ones who deal in mental phenomenon, which psi, if it exists, most certainly is. Further, if you go read the few experimental examples I excerpted above, I think you'll be hard-pressed to find an explanation which relies on self-deception.

Einstein recommended the book to psychologists for the very reasons which he explicitly stated. One of which was the study of self deception. You can't just selectively choose to see only the "psi" in what he said and reject the rest!

Thanks for the comprehensive "definition" of psychology....

What evidence do you have that "psi is most certainly a mental phenomenon"?

It is well known that "mental" experiences can often be directly related to electrochemical changes in the brain. Therefore should we consider electrochemistry to be "mental"? Or that psychologists are experts in electrochemistry? And how do we know that "psi" (assuming for the sake of argument that it exists) is NOT electrochemical?

And regardless of whether or not *I* would be "hard-pressed to find an explanation which relies on self-deception", it doesn't alter the possibility that there WAS self-deception. MY competence or lack thereof has no relation whatsoever to the facts of the case.

And I would also disagree that I would be "hard-pressed" etc. The "experiments" were conducted between a woman and the husband of her sister. Someone she knew well and presumably had spent time with before. It's not too difficult to imagine that if they had common interests in say furniture that each would be likely to think of furniture in connection with the other. If a couple of months before they had had an animated discussion about say an antique chair then it is entirely possible and indeed probable, that there would have been some subconscious association in the mind of each person between the other and an antique chair. That's what the brain tends to do, look for and fix associations. Memory is based on associations. In one experiment the woman "saw" that the man was using green paper. Well, did he LIKE green paper? Did he have a particular tendency to USE green paper? Had he ever done so before? And so on. Lots of questions, very few answers.

I only mention the above as an illustrative point, I don't know if these people had any such common association. However, the very real possibility that they DID immediately introduces a major red flag to the objectivity of the experiments. The only way this would even start to be remotely objective would be if the people involved did NOT know each other, and also if neither knew WHO the other person was in any given experiment.
 
amherst said:
If the answer is yes, you have in fact read the book, then I will believe you when you say your position is the same as Einsteins. I will believe that you find the experiments significant, can see no plausible mundane answers, and are impressed by the results. Since Einstein could offer no mundane explanation I will believe that you cannot either and that we are in agreement that the evidence is compelling.

You are wrong. My position is the same as Einstein's. I found it interesting and thinks that it certainly deserves consideration. I also found the experiments better than most other experiments I have seen - although that doesn't say much. And, I agree that this is for psychologists to explore - since no real paranormal phenomenon has been found, but that the perception of such phenomena certainly exists - people really seem to believe in this - it makes sense to look at it from a psychological POV. In other words: WTF is happening in peoples' heads?

Here is where the flaw in your reasoning is: Nowhere does Einstein say that he finds the evidence compelling. He specifically points to the explanation that if it isn't telepathy (thereby shooting down your theory that he believes it is), then it could be hypnosis. He points to alternative, non-paranormal explanations.

Einstein makes it very clear: He is not convinced that this is telepathy. And neither am I.

If you want to make a better case, you are simply going to have to find a direct quote from Einstein. If you only have this paragraph, then you have nothing.

amherst said:
If the answer is no, you haven't read the book, then I will be forced to wonder why you call yourself a skeptic. If your position is the same as Einsteins, then you can see no plausible mundane explanation for the results. And so if this is your position, without having even read the book, then in my estimation you're not being very skeptical.

The answer is yes. I did read the book. Thanks for finding me skeptical. I also have the advantage of living almost 75 years later than Einstein: Much has happened in the field of parapsychology since 1930, and we know much more today than was known then. Today we know much more about how these feats can be achieved by non-paranormal means, and no, I do not find the evidence compelling at all.
 
amherst said:


If the answer is yes, you have in fact read the book, then I will believe you when you say your position is the same as Einsteins. I will believe that you find the experiments significant, can see no plausible mundane answers, and are impressed by the results. Since Einstein could offer no mundane explanation I will believe that you cannot either and that we are in agreement that the evidence is compelling. I will also agree that Einstein, you, and I, all look at the experiments favorably.

If the answer is no, you haven't read the book, then I will be forced to wonder why you call yourself a skeptic. If your position is the same as Einsteins, then you can see no plausible mundane explanation for the results. And so if this is your position, without having even read the book, then in my estimation you're not being very skeptical.

amherst

Well Claus is quite capable of answering for himself, but *I* would take issue with a lot of things above.

1. Why would you assume that Claus finds the experiments "significant"?

2. Why would you assume that he can see "no plausible mundane answers"?

3. Why would assume that he is "impressed with the results"?

4. Why do you say Einstein could "offer no mundane explanation"? Aside from the fact that he DID offer a possible mundane explanation (that it was self-deception) what evidence is there that he even bothered to consider other alternatives?

5. Why would you assume that if Einstein really couldn't offer a mundane explanation that it means that Claus couldn't?

6. On what basis could you reasonably assume that Claus finds the evidence "compelling"?

7. And on what basis could you state that Einstein looked at the experiments "favorably"?

8. Or that Claus does?

Seems to me that there are a lot of assumptions, but very little justification for any of them.
 
Pragmatist said:


Well Claus is quite capable of answering for himself, but *I* would take issue with a lot of things above.
1. Why would you assume that Claus finds the experiments "significant"?
Because Einstein found them significant enough to write what he did.
2. Why would you assume that he can see "no plausible mundane answers"?
Because Einstein couldn't.
3. Why would assume that he is "impressed with the results"?
Because Einstein was impressed enough to write what he did.
4. Why do you say Einstein could "offer no mundane explanation"? Aside from the fact that he DID offer a possible mundane explanation (that it was self-deception) what evidence is there that he even bothered to consider other alternatives?
You really don't give him much credit do you? I think that before Einstein wrote the favorable preface he most likely thought very deeply about what he had read.
5. Why would you assume that if Einstein really couldn't offer a mundane explanation that it means that Claus couldn't?
Because Claus claimed his position was exactly what Einsteins was.
6. On what basis could you reasonably assume that Claus finds the evidence "compelling"?
His agreement with Einstein. Again, Einstein found the results compelling enough to write what he did.
7. And on what basis could you state that Einstein looked at the experiments "favorably"?

8. Or that Claus does?
I've already explained why it is obvious that Einstein looked at the experiments favorably. You only have to read his preface to see that he did.

amherst
 
CFLarsen said:
The answer is yes. I did read the book. Thanks for finding me skeptical. I also have the advantage of living almost 75 years later than Einstein: Much has happened in the field of parapsychology since 1930, and we know much more today than was known then. Today we know much more about how these feats can be achieved by non-paranormal means, and no, I do not find the evidence compelling at all.
Do you still have the book in your possesion? I think the only real reason to continue this discussion would be if you and I could go over the experiments in detail. I would be very interested to see your (specific) explanations for the results.

amherst
 
amherst said:
Acclaimed Pulitzer Prize-winning author of novels such as The Jungle, and Oil!, Upton Sinclair also penned a book detailing telepathy experiments done with his wife Mary Craig. Entitled Mental Radio, Albert Einstein wrote the preface:


amherst [/B]
The notion that Albert Einstein was a believer in ESP based upon the forward he wrote for Mental Radio was thoroughly debunked by two letters Einstein himself wrote addressing the matter.

See: Martin Gardner's Science: Good, Bad, and Bogus:

http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/t...33/reviews/103-1795888-8745454#08797557334500

There is a short piece on Einstein, who is often cited by parapsychologists as an establishment figure who nevertheless believed in ESP. Gardner comprehensively demolishes the basis for this citation, quoting letters from Einstein showing that he had no such belief, and was in fact very sceptical.
I can't find my copy of the book at the moment, or I'd post the content...

Part One

13. Einstein and ESP
14. A Second Einstein ESP Letter

http://www.amazon.com/gp/reader/0879755733/ref=sib_dp_pt/103-1795888-8745454#reader-page

See next page... Contents

I'll make a trip to the library tomorrow, post the text of Einstein's letters, and we'll dismiss this silliness once and for all.
 
Psiload,

"I prepared the introduction to Upton Sinclair's book because of my personal friendship with the author, and I did it without revealing my lack of conviction, but also without being dishonest. I admit frankly my skepticism in respect to all such beliefs and theories, a skepticism that is not the result of adequate acquaintance with the relevant experimental facts, but rather a lifelong work in physics. Moreover, I should like to admit, that, in my own life, I have not had any experiences which would throw light on the possibility of communication between human beings that was not based on normal mental processes."
Einstein, 13 May, 1946, in a letter to Dr. Ehrenwald.
(Taken from Martin Gardner's book "Science -good, bad and bogus")


amherst,

The purpose of this thread was for you to try and claim that Einstein considered the results in Sinclair's book "compelling". Your claim has been effectively debunked.

I don't have the book. I don't feel comfortable discussing the details of a book I don't have in front of me.
 
Just one question. Sinclair was a true believer. While he would rail against Hitler he would convieniently ignore Stalin's enormities. While The Jungle had the desired social impact, it was framed in the form of a novel and no one, as far as I can tell, ever accused him of 100% accuracy. That said, he appears to embody certain characteristics of true believers, that is that the end justifies the means.

Why would one believe anything that he wrote on the present subject in the first place?
 
amherst said:

1. Because Einstein found them significant enough to write what he did.

2. Because Einstein couldn't.

3. Because Einstein was impressed enough to write what he did.

4. You really don't give him much credit do you? I think that before Einstein wrote the favorable preface he most likely thought very deeply about what he had read.

5. Because Claus claimed his position was exactly what Einsteins was.

6. His agreement with Einstein. Again, Einstein found the results compelling enough to write what he did.

7&8. I've already explained why it is obvious that Einstein looked at the experiments favorably. You only have to read his preface to see that he did.

amherst


1. I don't think you can make assumptions about Claus's state of mind from what you believe Einstein's was. Just because Einstein thought them INTERESTING (in SOME respect, not necessarily the one YOU believe) doesn't mean that either he or Claus finds them "significant". For what it's worth, *I* also agree with what Einstein actually said, that if the experiments were NOT an example of "psi" then they should be of interest to psychologists because it appears that the honesty of the experimenter does not preclude the possibility of self-deception. THAT is of interest and may be of some significance to me personally. But I don't find anything otherwise "significant" about these experiments.

2. This doesn't make any sense at all. Einstein DID offer a mundane explanation - that it was self-deception. Ignoring that and pretending it doesn't exist is hardly a valid argument. And regardless of whether he did or not offer a mundane explanation it doesn't mean he COULDN'T do so. "Didn't" doesn't mean "couldn't".

3. Again what may have impressed Einstein doesn't necessarily impress Claus, (or me). And even if he was impressed, you can't say for certain WHAT he was impressed about: the possibility of psi or the possibility of self-deception in an honest man. Einstein leaves the point sufficiently ambiguous. The reason why is probably quite obvious, the guy was a friend of his and he didn't want to insult him, at the same time he didn't want to commit to something that could be seen as an endorsement of "psi". In fact, if you bothered to check Einstein out properly you would realise that "psi" is something that Einstein was implacably opposed to throughout his life. For example, one of Einstein's famous quotations:

From: http://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/philosophy/works/ge/einstein.htm

I close these expositions, which have grown rather lengthy, concerning the interpretation of quantum theory with the reproduction of a brief conversation which I had with an important theoretical physicist. He: "I am inclined to believe in telepathy." I: "This has probably more to do with physics than with psychology." He: "Yes."

Read the whole paper, it will give you a good insight into just how materialist/rationalist Einstein was.

You might also look up Einstein's famous criticism of quantum mechanics as "spooky action at a distance". He himself described the position of equating equating QM to "psi" was a case of reducing to absurdity. Hence he thought "psi" an absurdity.

4. I don't see your point. I never said or implied that Einstein didn't think deeply about what he said. Nor did I fail to give him any due "credit". Your argument has no relation to the facts. And what Einstein is LIKELY to have done is not necessarily exactly what he DID do.

5. Claus declared his position to be the same as Einstein's. So is mine. Your argument is predicated on the assumption that Einstein had no mundane explanation, which is obviously untrue because he GAVE such an explanation. And secondly, even if Claus (or I) agree with Einstein that the matter is "interesting", that in no way implies that ANY of us are unable to offer a mundane explanation. I have already offered one, so did Einstein and I can't remember if Claus did or not!

6. I guess we should clarify what is meant by "compelling". Compelling to WHAT is the question? Einstein did not say the evidence was compelling, you did. What Einstein said and what you THINK he was trying to say, are two different things. There is no evidence that Einstein found the results "compelling".

7&8. It is NOT obvious that Einstein found the experiments "favorable". You are simply constructing something that doesn't exist. Einstein found the experiments INTERESTING. That is precisely the word he used. He did NOT say, "compelling" or "favorable" or anything else. You are trying to put words into his mouth. And "interesting" is hardly an endorsement. I have read many books about psi etc. Many are interesting. But that doesn't mean that I believe a word of it or think that the material is in any way valid.
 
Darat said:
Different ways of looking at it I suppose. Just seems a strange way to be recommending the book or the series of experiments by implying that just because Einstein thought they were interesting some people here would automatically give it more credit.

It does refute the rather silly notion that Skeptics are more intelligent than non-Skeptics.
 
Pragmatist said:
To me, the above sums it up perfectly. Einstein is effectively saying that he is recommending the book to psychologists because either way it should be of interest to them. Firstly if it reveals telepathy it should be interesting. But if it reveals some form of subconscious self deception, then it should also be of interest because psychologists should study that too.

So he obviously isn't saying that it proves anything about telepathy. And the mere fact that he goes on to say that it should be of interest to those studying self deception . .

So he's adopting a stance opposite to Skeptics. They believe that no research into the paranormal should be allowed at all. The reason given for this is that it definitely doesn't exist. So they're not even interested in subconscious self deception.
 
Interesting Ian said:
So he's adopting a stance opposite to Skeptics. They believe that no research into the paranormal should be allowed at all. The reason given for this is that it definitely doesn't exist. So they're not even interested in subconscious self deception.

Who, specifically, are you talking about here?
 
Interesting Ian said:
Huh?? I never even initially responded to you.

Put the drink down, Ian.

Interesting Ian said:
So he's adopting a stance opposite to Skeptics. They believe that no research into the paranormal should be allowed at all. The reason given for this is that it definitely doesn't exist. So they're not even interested in subconscious self deception.

"He" is Einstein. Gotcha. Who are the "Skeptics" you are talking about?
 

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