ImaginalDisc
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2005
- Messages
- 10,219
(Shrug)
Told you so.
Naturally, the pro-gay marriage folks first told me I'm crazy for saying gay marriage could possibly lead to this... and now they will tell me it's the most natural thing in the world and that I'm crazy for saying there's anything wrong with this.
(We've seen the same thing before, when opposition to civil unions fearing it would lead to gay marriage was first denigrated as "paranoid" and later, when just that happened, the "paranoid" conclusion was taken up as the most natural thing in the world.)
I wish they'd make up their mind.
By the way, the "slippery slope" argument is legitimate if the slope is in fact slippery. If recognizing gay marriage is likely to lead to recognizing polygamy, then it's simply a valid argument; it is only a "slippery slope" fallacy if recognition of gay marriage is not likely to lead to this. I tend to think the slope is slippery in this case. Others disagree. But that is a matter of fact. Merely making a slippery slope argument is not in itself a logical fallacy.
It is true that it is a fallacy to claim that if society recognizes gay marriage then it must ipso facto recognize polygamy. It does not logically follow that one leads to the other. It only might, under certain conditions, practically do so, which is the "slippery slope" claim. But these are two different claims. I agree with the latter, but am not claiming the former.
However, if gay marriage is recognizes, not due to the legistlature following public opinion, but because the courts decide there is a "constitutional right" to gay marriage, in that case it logically follows as a necessity, not merely as a possiblity, that the states must also recognize polygamy: if sex is no barrier to a "constitutional right" to marriage, neither is number.
Cause/effect FAIL.
Tell me, Mr. "I can read Hebrew but nonetheless am ignoring the history of polygamy in Western civilization" how does gay marriage lead to a polygamous marriages?