Have you... read the article?
The mother, the one charged, didn't kill the fetus via accident or violence.
Apparently this is not true.
The person who shot the pregnant woman was not charged.
The article omits any details that would help us assess this point.
However, our law - and I think our morality - provides that people who fight back against an aggressor may not be guilty of any crime. Not even the crime of murder, if their fighting back results in the death of the aggressor.
Perhaps that's what happened in this case. The article doesn't say, so appealing to "read the article" probably doesn't help your argument.
The woman who was shot and miscarried was charged.
The article doesn't say, but it seems like this might be an application of the principle of felony murder. Our laws provide for charging an aggressor for harm arising from their aggression, even if the agent of that harm was someone else. A security guard shoots a bank robber in self defense, putting a murder charge on the robber's partner.
So charging the woman with an illegally-induced miscarriage, for a miscarriage that resulted from violence that she herself initiated, doesn't seem out of line to me. Not in principle, at least. The article doesn't provide enough detail to know whether that's a reasonable result in this case.
Because the article lacks detail, we should probably reserve judgement. But in the meantime we can reason from certain principles. For example, if you don't agree with the principle of felony murder, then this case will probably never be acceptable to you. Whatever the details that emerge, putting the mom on the hook for the miscarriage resulting from her violence will never seem to you a good moral outcome.
On the other hand, if you do agree with the principle of felony murder, then you're probably at least open to the idea of felony miscarriage as being governed by the same principle. And then you can examine the details of this case, and judge whether the charges against the woman are consistent with this principle.
Unfortunately, we have no details, and so it's premature to pass judgement on the charges.
You can also reason from the principle of illegally-induced miscarriages. If you don't agree that people should be generally prohibited from inducing miscarriages on their own authority, then you will never agree that this woman may have a case to answer, whether she induced the miscarriage during the commission of a felony, or by any other means.
On the other hand, if you agree that in some cases people should be prohibited from inducing miscarriages on their own say-so, then you're probably open to the idea that this woman may have a case to answer here.
If she had self-induced a miscarriage in the 2nd trimester by other means, would you consider that a crime she should be held accountable for? I ask this independently of what the actual laws about intentional miscarriage are, in Alabama. My question is whether or not you think it *should* be a crime. Put it another way: If the question came up for a vote in your jurisdiction, would you vote for or against criminalizing intentional miscarriages?
These questions of principles and how we might apply them are about all we can reasonably discuss right now, since we don't have enough detail to really get into the specifics of this case. It may be that in a week we'll have information that completely changes our understanding of what happened and why she's been charged. However, in the meantime discussing the principles will probably prepare us better to judge this case as more details emerge.
What do you think?