I still do not see how you know or have calculated this.
The link also not explain how you have come that result.
Anyway lets start the attack.
If you compared to the to speed (2.99999997 m/s) and the energy consumption (220-300 MW) – it shows that if you decreases the speed about 1 % the energy consumption decreased about 50 % . – How do you explain that?
What a pathetic attack. You do not know what you asked or what I answered so lets try again:
You asked:
Originally Posted by
Bjarne
Please mention the energy consumption in % relative to the top speed (mention above - 2.99999997 m/s) or in MW relative to the 220-300 MW and the numbers of particles ,mentioned in the example above.
The answer is:
The approximated energy consumption of the LHC when the particles are moving with
top speed is
120 MW relative to the 180 MW.
The number of protons in the LHC beams is about
600 trillion.
We know that you are incapable of the simplest physical calculation so what are you going to do with this?
P.S. There is no linear relationship between the power consumption of the LHC and the speed of the particles. There is a little thing called special relativity that you have forgotten.
Also much of the power is used to create magnetic fields. The power consuption of the magnets is unlikely to be linearly related to the speed of the particles.
Originally Posted by
Reality Check
The force on an object in a circular object is
never proportional to circle radius multiplied by speed ("Circle radius * speed") - it's so simple math....
And that’s in fact a problem..
No it is not a problem - it is a physical fact that the force on an object in a circular object is F = mv^2/r.
As any idiot can see this is not proportional to r*v.
Originally Posted by
Reality Check
F = mv^2/r
Off course, -
but the problem is that the force used, is two times that force it seems to be necessary! - WHY?
BECAUSE you are ignorant of the fact that this is circular motion. The force is exactly that needed to keep the body in
circular motion.
F=m
a where m is mass,
F is the
force vector and a is the
acceleration vector. These are both directed into the center of the circle. So in that direction:
F=ma where F is the magnitude of the force and a is the centripetal (inward) acceleration. The acceleration is the change in velocity which is v^2/r.
It’s not enough to know how to calculate the force required, - the point is what happens?
The point is that is what happens in
circular motion.
Why is the speed only the haft of that it should have been?
It is because you are really ignorant.
The speed is not half of what it should have been. It is exactly what is expected in circular motion.
Your ignorance may have deluded you into trying to apply what little you know about
linear motion to
circular motion.
In linear motion the force vector is in the same direction as the velocity vector and the change in
speed is simply the acceleration.
Boost an object using a given force and you will get a final speed of v.
Divide the force by 4 and the speed will divide by 4.
But: In
circular motion the force vector is at right angles to the velocity vector. The acceleration is
not the change in the magnitude of the velocity (the speed). The acceleration is ( as always) the change in velocity vector. An object moving at a constant speed in circular motion has an centripetal (inward) acceleration of v^2/r.
If the force is gravity then the gravitational force is GMm/r^2 and the orbital speed is
An object in an orbit at a certain r from a body of M will have an orbital speed as above.
Change the radius by a factor of 4 and the orbital speed will change by a factor of 2.
This is now the 18th time it has been explained to you.
This is now the 19th time it has been explained to you.