I'd suggest
this link for a thorough discussion, in terms clear enough that a translation software wouldn't garble it beyond comprehension.
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heydarian, if you'd be willing to leave aside what you've started focusing on here of late, which would be telling us we'll be destroyed unless we believe in and genuflect to your God, as well as making outlandish claims about 6000 year old men and the impending destruction of large parts of the world and your own privileged knowledge about such; and instead focus on those four "reasons" that you keep talking about (and that people here keep telling you --- quite rightly --- that they've already refuted by pointing out that they're simply special pleading): perhaps you could check out this link:
https://homeweb.csulb.edu/~cwallis/100/st2.html
Those "reasons" of yours, which no doubt you've read somewhere, aren't some new revelation. They had been famously articulated by Thomas Aquinas something like a thousand years ago. And they've already been debunked many years before any of us were born, and debunked very thoroughly and beyond the slightest possibility of lingering doubt about their validity.
I understand your difficulty with the translation software. I've personally checked out the term "special pleading" by having it translated into Persian, and then back into English, and I can see how you might be confused by people apparently telling you that it is a "special request". (If you're interested, then here's the link to the Wiki on the logical fallacy that is being referred to by the term "special pleading":
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_pleading.)
Anyway, you can check out that link I supplied here (here it is one more time, just to make sure there's no confusion about what I'm referring to here:
https://homeweb.csulb.edu/~cwallis/100/st2.html). The discussion linked to is thorough enough and made in clear enough terms that I think you'll realize how those "reasons" of yours are fallacious, wrong.
If it is indeed the same argumnet put forward by Thomas Aquinas in the 13th century (a great deal has changed since the 13th cent. … all of science has been discovered since then!), then according to Wikipedia (and according to the link given above by Chanakya), that was 5 arguments -
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Five_Ways_(Aquinas)
1. the*argument from "first mover";
2. the*argument from causation;
3. the*argument from contingency;
4. the*argument from degree;
5. the*argument from final cause or ends*("teleological*argument").
But if you look at those 5 arguments, they are really all the same argument. They all try to show that an “infinite regress” occurs when we try to explain such things as why we see that everything is subject to “change” & why all things have a “cause” etc.
All 5 argumnets reduce to the claim that, in order to stop that inifite regression, an intelligent designer God must therefore exist as the “ultimate uncaused cause" for any of that. It has to be an
intelligent God, because Aquinas also thinks that he sees purpose and design in all things.
But that's really what philosophers might call an argumnet from incredulity or ignorance. i.e., where Aquinas could not concieve of how a universe could exist unless someone (ie God) had deliberately made it.
However, the appearance of design or purpose in the universe, is an illusion. And we now understand that from modern science. That's partly behind Darwins discovery of evolution, and it's also explained by all of chemistry and physics, where for example it explains why crystals look designed … but crystals simply form in those neat geometric patterns because that's the most energy efficient way of packing their consitiuent molecules together.
It's true that we (ie science) do not yet have a universally agreed explantion for exactly how the Big Bang occurred, but iirc over the last 30 years or so, most of the published papers on big bang cosmology have desicribed the same sort of possible explanation. Namely that the universe has always existed as some form of interacting energy fields …
… why must those energy fields always exist? The simple philosophical-type answer is that it's not possible for truly “Nothing” to exist, because “nothing” is not a state of anything at all … “nothing” is just our human word and human concept for something that has no existence at all. So, for example, what would it mean to say that “
nothing existed before the big bang”? … well “nothing” cannot exist by it's own definition, so you cannot possibly have a state of “nothing” prior to the big bang.
IOW the whole concept of “nothing” is misleading. It's simply a word to say that the thing is impossible by it's own definition. IOW – something must always exist. The Universe that we experience must have always existed in some energetic form or other.
The Big Bang is now pretty much fully understood and described. It's a very rapid expansion from the interaction of various energy fields … that's like a “phase change” in which one form of highly compressed energy is converted to a different form of energy occupying or producing a much larger volume. How does that happen? Well, afaik, most of those papers over the past 30 years or so have come to the conclusion that prior to the Big Bang (and there was a “prior
time” - see below) the universe consisted of a set of highly compressed interacting energy fields, such as gravity, the electromagnetic field, strong & weak nuclear forces etc. … because those fields were so highly compressed together, quantum interactions dominated, and the fields would necessarily undergo random quantum fluctuations in magnitude and direction …
… as soon as any fluctuation occurs, there is an immediate interaction with the mass of all the other surrounding fields, and the fluctuation is quenched back to zero within a very short time, eg within one Planck Time … but momentarily, when the fluctuation occurs, that is actually the sudden emergence of a mini-Big-Bang with an emergent embryonic space-time, ie a very short lived embryo universe … and that process occurs perhaps a trillion trillion times per fraction of a second (time now exists, as the duration of that fluctuation) …
… but because the interactions are random, eventually one or more fluctuations must appear with such magnitude and so rapidly that the force of all the surrounding fields cannot stop the inflation … at that point the inflating mini-universe accelerates by sucking out the energy from all of the other surrounding fields, and that becomes the Inflationary Stage of the big Bang (as described 30 years ago by Alan Guth). From that point you have
continuous time and continuously expanding space, leading to the Big Bang proper … and from there all of the physics is pretty well understood.
One thing to note in all of that, is – it turns out that it is fairly easy to calculate all of the energy in our universe. Some of that energy acts in one sense, and the rest of it acts in an opposing sense … but when we add up all of the positive acting energy plus all of the negative acting forces, the total sum is exactly Zero! That is – the overall energy of our universe is zero! That fits exactly with the above description where at any single instant the pre-big-bang fields are cancelling one another completely to zero …
… another thing to note that is, that “Time” does exist before the Big Bang, but it's discontinuous or momentary, ie a brief space-time that arises from each quantum fluctuation.
As a last comment on that – what the above shows is that whereas Aquinas, and almost all religious people today, thought that God must be the explanation for how & why our universe exists, there is now (and has been for 30 years or more) a reasonable scientific explanation which actually fits all of the evidence & data that we have, ie our knowledge of quantum interactions and the Big Bang, what sort of particle-fields existed within the first 1000th of a second after the “Bang”, ie all sorts of initial short-lived high energy exotic particle-fields, the way in which that inevitably leads the to the formation of stars and galaxies etc. in a universe that has taken 13.8 billion years to reach it's present state … none of that was known to Aquinas … but all of that does arise in models of pre-big-bang Inflation with a model/explanation of the sort that I've tried to give above. You could also include the likelihood of Multiverses forming from that same process … all that would mean is that numerous smaller universes formed and became continuous space-times of their own, before our universe finally appeared … and thats also possible within models of Inflation as described by Guth (ie Inflationary models do predict the formation of many such universes).
Edit to add –
in the above description, we could reasonably describe that pre-Big-Bang set of energy fields as truly “Nothing”, ie because on average (averaging-out the constant fluctuations), their overall effect sums exactly to zero (which is what we now find with the sum of all of the energy fields in the universe today). So in that sense, you could say that the Inflationary Stage of the Big Bang arises from truly “nothing”, or what we should perhaps properly mean by the word or concept of “nothing”.