TimCallahan
Philosopher
- Joined
- Mar 11, 2009
- Messages
- 6,293
According to Mark, he appeared to nobody. The only evidence of the Resurrection, according to Mark was the empty tomb.
Matthew says he first met Mary Magdalene and "the other Mary" as they were coming from the tomb to tell the disciples the tomb was empty and the stone had been rolled away by an angel. Some time later, the 11 disciples (Judas having already hanged himself) met Jesus on a mountain in Galilee, where the Savior had told the women he would meet them.
Luke says Jesus appeared first to two disciples on the road to Emmaus. Then he appeared to the 11 disciples (Judas having already burst open at the middle and spilled his guts into a field) in Jerusalem, where he tells the disciples to stay.
John says he first appeared to Mary Magdalene alone, then to all the disciples but Thomas in a locked room in Jerusalem, then eight days later in the same room to the disciples, including Thomas. Still later, he appeared to the disciples when they were fishing in the sea (actually lake) of Galilee, where for some unknown reason they had returned to their earlier profession of fishing.
Paul in 1 Cor. 15:5 - 8 (if it really was Paul's writing) says he appeared first to Cephas (Peter), then to the 12 (Judas too?), then to over 500 brethren at one time, then to James, then to all the apostles, then, finally, to Paul. Considering that Paul's seeing Jesus was likely visionary, were the others likewise visions?
So, here's my question to edge, Paul Bethke and other believers on this forum: How do you reconcile these mutually contradictory testimonies?
Matthew says he first met Mary Magdalene and "the other Mary" as they were coming from the tomb to tell the disciples the tomb was empty and the stone had been rolled away by an angel. Some time later, the 11 disciples (Judas having already hanged himself) met Jesus on a mountain in Galilee, where the Savior had told the women he would meet them.
Luke says Jesus appeared first to two disciples on the road to Emmaus. Then he appeared to the 11 disciples (Judas having already burst open at the middle and spilled his guts into a field) in Jerusalem, where he tells the disciples to stay.
John says he first appeared to Mary Magdalene alone, then to all the disciples but Thomas in a locked room in Jerusalem, then eight days later in the same room to the disciples, including Thomas. Still later, he appeared to the disciples when they were fishing in the sea (actually lake) of Galilee, where for some unknown reason they had returned to their earlier profession of fishing.
Paul in 1 Cor. 15:5 - 8 (if it really was Paul's writing) says he appeared first to Cephas (Peter), then to the 12 (Judas too?), then to over 500 brethren at one time, then to James, then to all the apostles, then, finally, to Paul. Considering that Paul's seeing Jesus was likely visionary, were the others likewise visions?
So, here's my question to edge, Paul Bethke and other believers on this forum: How do you reconcile these mutually contradictory testimonies?
