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The Riemann hypothesis has been proved wrong!

I read a few articles not too long ago saying that some eccentric Russian mathematician had actually proved it. Does anyone know if the declaration of proof was premature?

that was one of the other 7 Millenium Prize problems - the Poincare conjecture.

YOU have got to be crazy to turn down $1 million and the top prize in your field - unless you are a mathematician, that is, for whom eccentricity is almost de rigueur.

Grigori Perelman, a Russian mathematician who has received widespread acclaim for his purported proof of the Poincaré conjecture, one of mathematics' most celebrated problems (see "Burden of proof"), did not turn up to collect his Fields medal on Tuesday. It is rumoured that he may also turn down the $1 million that the Clay Institute of Mathematics in Boston would award if his proof passes muster, as looks likely.

according to wolfram, re riemann

The Riemann hypothesis has thus far resisted all attempts to prove it. Stieltjes (1885) published a note claiming to have proved the Mertens conjecture with , a result stronger than the Riemann hypothesis and from which it would have followed. However, the proof itself was never published, nor was it found in Stieltjes papers following his death, so it is strongly believed his claim to have possessed such a proof was erroneous (Derbyshire 2004, pp. 160-161 and 250). In the late 1940s, H. Rademacher's erroneous proof of the falsehood of Riemann's hypothesis was reported in Time magazine, even after a flaw in the proof had been unearthed by Siegel (Borwein and Bailey 2003, p. 97; Conrey 2003). de Branges has written a number of papers discussing a potential approach to the generalized Riemann hypothesis (de Branges 1986, 1992, 1994) and in fact claiming to prove the generalized Riemann hypothesis (de Branges 2003, 2004; Boutin 2004), but no actual proofs seem to be present in these papers. Furthermore, Conrey and Li (1998) prove a counterexample to de Branges's approach, which essentially means that theory developed by de Branges is not viable.
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannHypothesis.html

I'm currently working on a proof - i'll publish it at the weekend ;)
 
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Aha! According Webster's either proven or proved is correct! So perhaps it is time for me to shut up.

(BTW, I wasn't critiquing your use of passive voice. It works fine, I was just noting that it was a different grammatical structure than simply using the past participle.)

To hell with Webster... they eagerly embrace every linguistic fad error that comes their way...

What does an Oxford English Dictionary say?
 
I doubt very much that it will be disproven, for I think it is true.

I think a valid proof will be discovered within 20 years.
 
Except for everyone who wrote a paper on an hypothesis containing the phrase "Assuming the Riemann Hypothesis is true...", and everone who's written an hypothesis based on those hypotheses. That could be a huge number of papers and an awful lot of maths down the toilet.


I rather enjoyed the discussion of this on Melvyn Bragg's "In Our Time" programme a while back. The consensus was that if it's proved to be true, it will firm up a lot of very interesting maths. But then if it's proved to be false, it will allow a lot of very interesting maths to be revisited and open the door to even more very interesting maths. So either way the mathematicians were happy.
 
the guy who was working on a math/physics approach was Fields medalist Alain Connes.
 
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What does an Oxford English Dictionary say?

Perhaps we should look to the definitive source for the proper definition of proof. Former Canadian Prime Minister Jean Chretien, what do you have to say?

A proof is a proof. What kind of a proof? It's a proof. A proof is a proof. And when you have a good proof, it's because it's proven.

Errr.. thanks. :boggled:
 
"I've already finished the proof, but it's too large to fit in the reply to this message."

just leave it as an exercise for the reader.
 
Complexity, i was happy that he was joking. i read the title and was thinking there was no way i missed that news. it would have been on the front page of many papers.

Meademaker, i'll be more impressed if you proved it with 16th century math.
 
perhaps to redeem this thread it would be interesting to discuss Riemann....

Some numbers have the special property that they cannot be expressed as the product of two smaller numbers, e.g., 2, 3, 5, 7, etc. Such numbers are called prime numbers, and they play an important role, both in pure mathematics and its applications. The distribution of such prime numbers among all natural numbers does not follow any regular pattern, however the German mathematician G.F.B. Riemann (1826 - 1866) observed that the frequency of prime numbers is very closely related to the behavior of an elaborate function

ζ(s) = 1 + 1/2^s + 1/3^s + 1/4^s + ...

called the Riemann Zeta function. The Riemann hypothesis asserts that all interesting solutions of the equation

ζ(s) = 0

lie on a certain vertical straight line. This has been checked for the first 1,500,000,000 solutions. A proof that it is true for every interesting solution would shed light on many of the mysteries surrounding the distribution of prime numbers.
http://www.claymath.org/millennium/Riemann_Hypothesis/

so

[latex]$$ \zeta (s) = 1+ \frac{1}{2^s} + \frac{1}{3^s} + \frac{1}{4^s}...[/latex]

where s can be real or complex

which incorporates the really fascinating harmonic series

[latex]$$ \zeta (1) = 1+ \frac{1}{2^1} + \frac{1}{3^1} + \frac{1}{4^1}...[/latex]

which actually tends to infinity even though to look at it you would expect it to converge. And indeed other simple real values do converge

[latex]$$ \zeta (2) = 1+ \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{4^2}...[/latex]

This time it remarkably converges to a function of pi - [latex]$$ \frac{{\pi}^2}{6} [/latex]

Now, according to the sites, the trivial solutions to this problem are given by choosing s= -2, -4, -6.....but that gives you;

[latex]$$ \zeta (-2) = 1+ \frac{1}{2^{-2}} + \frac{1}{3^{-2}} + \frac{1}{4^{-2}}...[/latex]

which tends to infinity....and not to zero. So what's with that? :)
 
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Omigod! I'm a fantasy author, and the "passive voice" critique reminds me of critics of my early first draft! Every "was" jumped on like a starving Rottweiler on a pork chop.
I think you mean "Every 'was' jumped on like a pork chop by a starving Rottweiler." Unless you have particularly pork chops where you live.

(BTW, I wasn't critiquing your use of passive voice. It works fine, I was just noting that it was a different grammatical structure than simply using the past participle.)
I'm not clear one what point you're making here.

Sorry for the title. However that's to shock the mathematicians.
"Sorry for the title. However, that's to shock the mathematicians."

Or better:
"Sorry for the title; that's to shock the mathematicians."
 
I have a semiconon; something I'm not afraid to use.
 

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