UndercoverElephant
Pachyderm of a Thousand Faces
- Joined
- Jan 17, 2002
- Messages
- 9,058
Horsecrap.
Nope.
~~ Paul
This depends entirely on the definition of mind.
Are you comfortable with:
Reductive materialism claims that pain is brain processes.
Eliminative materialism claims that pain isn't brain processes because there are no such thing as pain.
regardless of how I define pain?
~~ Paul
I can define pain as the physiological and psychological reaction to being stuck with a skewer. That does not involve the scareword experience. It is an entirely reasonable definition for a reductive materialist to use. It conforms just perfectly to:Geoff said:NO! How YOU define pain is absolutely critical at this point. Why are you unable to define it? Because you now understand the consequences of each possible definition. If you define it as the experience of pain, you're going to end up defining it dualistically. If you define it as mere neuronal firings, you're going to end up being eliminativist. You are trying to avoid both conclusions.
You claim this allows for pain in a way that the eliminative materialist does not. It is not an ontological claim, because you have said there is no ontological difference between RM and EM. So what is the substantive difference? What allows you to call RM incoherent while not doing the same for EM?Reductive materialism (Identity theory) claims that there is no independent, autonomous level of phenomena in the world that would correspond to the level of conscious mental states. It also states that the level of conscious phenomena is identical with some level of purely neurological description. Conscious phenomena are nothing over and above the neural level, thus it can be reduced to that level.
In other words, who wants to play the Geoff game of forgoing any reasonble discussion of Geoff's position and turn this into a 2000 post thread because it consists of Geoff making statements, then not being able to defend them, then accusing his interlocutors of being numbskulls to obscure his own inadequacies, then throwing out strawman characterizations of whatever stance anyone else takes until no one remembers why Geoff's original proposal was so screwed-up to begin with?
Any takers?
Lets see, just for the sake of it (remember Geoff, that I see our worldviews are close).
Physicalism states that all that exists is physical.
Minds exist, ergo, minds are physical.
So far so good.
Oh, I hope I will not be in "the black list" for this.
Are you sure your name isn't Troy?
I've had enough of the circularity. Good bye.
So far so good. You don't make it onto the blacklist, but so far this isn't a defence of physicalism. You've stated minds do exist. This is expressly a denial of eliminativism, so your defence won't be insane/bizarre/unbelievable, but it's not allowed to turn into eliminativism. I now need you to check out post #1286 and tell me which version of physicalism you want to try to defend : Reductive or Eliminative. Be aware that I am going to argue that eliminativism is insane and all forms of reductive materialism are implicitly dualistic (incoherent).
First please explain the substantive difference between reductive and eliminative materialism.Geoff said:Is anybody reading this still willing to define a set of terms and defend a version of materialism which is both of the following?:
a) logically coherent
b) not insane/bizarre/unbelievable
What about a third kind?
If minds exists (lets concede that we all know what we mean by "mind), then whats the problem in stating, simply, that they are physical. What if the monism is on the other side?
If I remember this would lead us again to P1 and P2. Is this correct?
And also a reductive materialist.Geoff said:The problem is that you already have a physical thing which corresponds to a mind : you have a brain process. So you are then in the position of having to explain the relationship between them. One of two conditions must apply. Either every mental term is theoretically replacable with a physical one, or it isn't. If it is then you are an eliminativist.
So do I. We all agree! Yee-haw! So why doesn't reductive materialism count as materialism?Kevin has already been here. He stated he was very sure that anything that counts as materialism must be able to replace all mental terms with physical ones (at least in theory). On this point, I agree with him.
First please explain the substantive difference between reductive and eliminative materialism.
~~ Paul
Reductive materialism claims that minds/pains are brain processes.
Eliminative materialism claims that minds and pains aren't brain processes because there are no such things as minds and pains, there are only brain processes.
You CANNOT confuse these two claims. They are completely different.
And also a reductive materialist.
So do I. We all agree! Yee-haw! So why doesn't reductive materialism count as materialism?
Any kind of materialism is going to claim that in theory we can replace every single mental/subjective/folk-psychological term with objective/physical/neural terms.
Any other answer and you're some flavour of immaterialist, dualist, or dualist with nonsense on top