luchog
Neo-Post-Retro-Revivalist
I guess my problem is the difference between murder, killing
and murder committed by government. The argument you hear
often is bullcrap because i also could say that the Holocaust
was no murder because it was "a act of state".![]()
Technically, that's correct. Had the laws of the governing body of Nazi Germany permitted it, the killing would not have been unlawful, and therefore not technically murder. One could argue, however, international law taking precendence, and therefore classify it as murder, regardless
And a State can still commit murder, by causing the deliberate death of an individual or group contrary to it's own laws.
In the case of the Holocaust, however, the proscription against murder still stood; but the Nazi government has defined the Jews and other undesirables as "sub-human", and therefore not protected by the proscription against killing any more than any other animal would be. So and argument could be made that by the standards of the government, it was not murder, since the Jews were not human. On the other hand since their redefinition did not have any real validity, it would still qualify as murder, since they were humans and therefore protected by the prescription against unlawful killing.