The Historical Jesus III

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It is very remarkable that Mcreal should post a reference to the Hadrian letter without noting that his version of it has been challenged, as has his interpretation of its meaning.
I haven't posted that version on the previous page; and I've only posted part of the letter.

Besides, So what? The fundamentals are the same.

The letter to Servianus, 134 AD, refers to Hadrian's experiences in Egypt in the 2nd century -

"There, those who worship Serapis are, in fact, Christians, and those who call themselves bishops of Christ are, in fact, devotees of Serapis"​
It shows worshipers of Serapis, in the times of Tacitus, Pliny-younger, and Suetonius, were called Christians.
 
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I haven't posted that version on the previous page; and I've only posted part of the letter.

Besides, So what? The fundamentals are the same.

The letter to Servianus, 134 AD, refers to Hadrian's experiences in Egypt in the 2nd century -

"There, those who worship Serapis are, in fact, Christians, and those who call themselves bishops of Christ are, in fact, devotees of Serapis"​
It shows worshipers of Serapis, in the times of Tacitus, Pliny-younger, and Suetonius, were called Christians.
No. As I have pointed out, it clearly means that owing to the fickleness of the Egyptians, they jump from faith to faith; and although the Christian and Serapian faiths are different, the devotees of one in fact switch to being devotees of another, as the fancy takes them. I am happy to discuss this as long as you want. I like discussing this letter.
 
No. As I have pointed out, it clearly means that owing to the fickleness of the Egyptians, they jump from faith to faith; and although the Christian and Serapian faiths are different, the devotees of one in fact switch to being devotees of another, as the fancy takes them. I am happy to discuss this as long as you want. I like discussing this letter.

What illogical nonsense!!! The passage does not mean Egyptians jump from faith to faith.

One does not have to be an Egyptian to worship myth Gods.
 
Your approach to ancient literature is very silly, IanS. I don't expect to change your mind, but it is worth continuing the discussion so that people can see this. If you explained to Carrier and Price how you approach ancient literature -- even Christian ancient literature -- they would laugh.


It's not about "trust". It is about evaluating what we have. We use Tacitus because we have nothing better. In fact, he does have a good reputation as a historian. But we need to be careful trusting even him, since he was influenced and pressured by the social forces of his time. Important people would worry about how the stories of illustrious ancestors were portrayed in histories, for example. So even Tacitus' contemporary accounts need to be examined critically.

The fact that you use the word "trust" here is telling. You make it sound like the options are "trust" (which credulous HJers do!) and "don't trust" (which is what 'skeptical' mythicists do!) But it isn't "trust". It is "making careful evaluations with what information we have". That what scholars do. Scholars like Ehrman, Carrier and Price.


That is a very silly thing to say. I'm only an amateur when it comes to ancient writings, both pagan and Christian, and I can only read the English translations. But I have read a LOT, both translations of primary sources as well as a lot of scholarly secondary sources. That includes Carrier and Price. And I can tell you that Carrier and Price approach the ancient writings in the same ways as other scholars do, at least when it comes to "copies of copies" and "hearsay".

You've read Carrier's OHJ -- how often does he decide to rule out a source because it is a 'copy of a copy of a copy', for example? Give me the page numbers so that we can see Carrier doing that.


That's simply not the point, as I've explained above. You have got it so into your head about scholars "trusting" Tacitus that it is pointless to try to change you on this.

Here is what you should take away: Read what Carrier writes about Tacitus in OHJ. He tries to explain the Christ passage as an interpolation. Does he ever try to explain it as being irrelevant because it is a "copy of a copy of a copy"? No. He treats it as other scholars do: as a piece of evidence that requires analysis. If he regarded the whole thing as hearsay or irrelevant because it is a copy of a copy, why even try to explain that it is an interpolation?

Carrier makes good points on the problems with various criteria that scholars have developed. But he never invalidates a text for the reasons you do. Quite the opposite: he treats them seriously and worthy of analysis. And if you went to Carrier on this, he would agree with me.



I do not have to take upon "trust" what you say about Carrier (or what you say about Price, who I never even mentioned here at all), or what you say about any other published writers in this field. Nor do I need even to take upon "trust" whatever Carrier himself (or any of the others) may or may not claim about what information can be cited as "evidence" in this field or in any other field, thank you very much.

People in these threads can perfectly well decide from themselves, without any "rules" being imposed by you (or by Carrier, or anyone else), what they regard as credible reliable evidence of a human Jesus being known to anyone. And if it comes to that, there are several, if not many, people here who have postgraduate and post doctoral qualifications in far more objective and more analytically demanding evidenced-based subjects than either biblical studies (which is the field for most of your "experts") or historical studies of biblical writing such as Carrier apparently has.

So neither I nor anyone else here needs to take any lessons from you (or from Carrier), to decide for ourselves what counts as genuine reliable evidence of that which is being claimed.

We can decide that for ourselves thank you very much.

Beyond that, lets get to the point please - where is your evidence of anyone ever reliably claiming to have met a human Jesus?

Do you have any such evidence of a human Jesus ever known to anyone or not?
 
Your posts have no points at all. You have nothing to contribute to the discussion but baseless disruptions.
I hope I may respond in place of Elagabalus, and that he doesn't object to my doing so.
What is the actual name of your historical Jesus??
Jesus son of Joseph, probably, or its Aramaic equivalent.
Where did your HJ live??
Galilee, it seems.
What was the occupation of your HJ??
Not known. His presumed father was described as a "tekton", a craftsman of some kind. At one point he, and at another point his father, are so described.
Who saw your HJ?
Residents of Galilee, Judaeans, priests, Romans etc.
What credible historical sources of antiquity mention your HJ?
Works by Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny and Josephus, in the period up to c 120 CE.
You have nothing!!!!
Plenty, but you try to explain it all away. Obviously that can always be done.

How do I know that you exist, for example? Your many posts may be the work of a gang of forgers, intending to deceive the readers of this thread. Or they may be interpolated by another person altogether. How can we know?
 
And I can tell you that Carrier and Price approach the ancient writings in the same ways as other scholars do, at least when it comes to "copies of copies" and "hearsay".

You've read Carrier's OHJ -- how often does he decide to rule out a source because it is a 'copy of a copy of a copy', for example? Give me the page numbers so that we can see Carrier doing that.

This is a very good question! I'm awaiting an answer.

Excuse me, did I miss the answer?
 
Wrong. The passages in writings by them are not credible sources about a HJ, so are not credible evidence.
So they are not evidence. So there is no evidence. So why don't I show any evidence? Naughty me. Because there's NONE, that's why, eh?
 
You hate the misrepresentation? Then look at your own blatant misreprentation of me above - you name Price, but I have never mentioned Price or quoted anything from him or used any argument given by Price anywhere in any HJ threads!

And nor have I ever said that I endorse or agree with what you call Carrier's "approach" to what he says he is doing as "history". In fact, in much earlier posts I have made a number of criticisms of Carrier ... and yet here you are constantly claiming that I am endorsing what you call "their approach" ... I am doing no such thing, and in the case of Price I have never said a single word anywhere on the entire internet about anything he has said about Jesus!
You've misunderstood my point. I don't say you agree with Carrier's approach. It is the opposite: I'm saying you are at opposites to Carrier's approach. Carrier never invalidates a text for the reasons you do. He treats them seriously and worthy of analysis. And if you went to Carrier on this, he would agree with me over you on this.

I'll repeat my statement from the last post: Read what Carrier writes about Tacitus in OHJ. He tries to explain the Christ passage as an interpolation. Does he ever try to explain it as being irrelevant because it is a "copy of a copy of a copy"? No. He treats it as other scholars do: as a piece of evidence that requires analysis. If he regarded the whole thing as hearsay or irrelevant because it is a copy of a copy, why even try to explain that it is an interpolation?

But we need to stop all this evasive bickering - instead just post the evidence -

- Just post the evidence of anyone at all ever writing to describe how they met a human Jesus.

Just post that evidence please.
There is no evidence of anyone at all ever writing to describe how they met a human Jesus. I hope that answers your question.

But if that is a relevant question, why do you think Carrier wrote OHJ, examining those ancient texts that are 'copies of copies of copies', containing hearsay, as though those ancient texts contain something useful? Why does he use the same approach as other scholars with regards to the usefulness of those ancient texts in building a particular case? Why doesn't he just stop at "Just post the evidence of anyone at all ever writing to describe how they met a human Jesus"?
 
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Craig B argues with the help of mythology [Acts of the Apostles] that the resurrected and ascended Lord is Jesus in Galatians 1.19.[/quote] No, I can't take credit for that. It's you who praise the Lord. I deny that Jesus rose at all, and I think Paul was the victim of an hallucination, unless he was a total mountebank and charlatan.
The resurrected and ascended Lord in heaven is the LORD in Galatians 1.19.
The Lord in Galatians 1.19 is a Myth/fiction character.
Thanks Craig B
No, again. I award you all the credit for these insights. I have no belief in a mythic risen Lord. That's your speciality.
 
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I award you all the credit for these insights. I have no belief in a mythic risen Lord. That's your speciality.

You deserve all the praise!!!

You have identified the resurrected and ascended LORD is Jesus in Acts of the Apostles chapter 9.

Craig B said:
More on evidence, as regards a matter we have discussed here. Was Paul's "Lord" the same as Jesus? A source tells us he was. Acts 9...

Thank you very much!!! Have a nice day!!!

The Lord in Galatians 1.19 is a myth/fiction character in Galatians 1.19.

Even the BLIND in Acts knew that the resurrected and Ascended Lord in heaven was Jesus.

Even the Blind is a witness for Craig B's historical Jesus.
 
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You have identified the resurrected and ascended LORD is Jesus in Acts of the Apostles chapter 9.
I have identified a possible hallucination or possible falsehood. It is you who say that He was a Resurrected Lord.
Even the BLIND in Acts knew that the resurrected and Ascended Lord in heaven was Jesus.
You see, I don't accept that anything at all was "witnessed". I think it was a hallucination or some similar internal mental event.
 
Well, firstly I do not think you are offering any substantive disagreement with what I have said about Carrier's analysis of Zechariah, which he is tying together with his interpretations from Philo, as well as from Isaiah, and Daniel.

Except perhaps you say that he is wrong to describe this figure as a "pre-existent celestial being". I would have to look into exactly why or how he feels justified in using that description. But that's really a separate issue.
No it isn't a separate issue. Carrier uses that reading to support his overall argument. Now, I'll grant he might be wrong on that point and still be correct overall. But that isn't how these things usually go.

Let me make it clear: Carrier is 100% wrong if he describes the Jesus figure in Zech 6 as a "pre-existent celestial being." You can check this for yourself in less than a couple of minutes if you have access to an on-line Bible. I recommend Blue Letter Bible. It allows you to search over 20 different versions of the Bible. I've checked a few of the main ones, and they all show that Carrier is wrong on Zech 6. No-one, not even Carrier, has ever suggested that there is a varient reading that doesn't have the Jesus figure as a man.

The point that Carrier is making, and the only point I was making, is that he has written a book which has passed what counts in this subject as "peer review", by which afaik that is supposed to mean the book has been checked extensively by independent experts in the field prior to publication, such that anything which the expert review panel disagree with, must either be omitted entirely from the book or else altered to make it acceptable to the reviewers ... at least that is what "peer review" means in the case of scientific research papers, i.e. the reviewers and the Journals editor will not publish the paper unless you omit anything which they as experts cannot agree to as being correct or at least reasonably plausible.
No-one is making that point here. You've picked that up out of nowhere. It is irrelevant. Carrier is still wrong if he describes the Jesus figure in Zech 6 as a "pre-existent celestial being". Check it for yourself! The Jesus figure in Zech 6 is a man, a high priest of the Temple.

But when you say Zechariah does not say what Carrier says that it said, that appears to be a difference of opinion between yourself and Carrier, but where Carrier can support his analysis by pointing to the fact that his analysis has passed a "peer review" process in this subject ... whereas as far as I know, you are relying upon reading such things as Wikipedia for what you think were the actual words used in the particular copies of Zechariah that are in question here (these are Septuagint translations, afaik).
Okay. Let me rephrase then: As far as I know, in every version of every edition of the Old Testament, whether Septuagint or otherwise, the Jesus figure in Zech 6 is not a pre-existent celestial being, he is a man, a high priest of the Second Temple. But no-one, not even Carrier, has ever suggested that there is a variant reading that doesn't have the Jesus figure as a man.

All I am pointing out is that in this particular argument (you are really arguing with Carrier, not with me), that Carrier's book is to be preferred to a source like Wikipedia, simply because Carrier's analysis is endorsed by peer review.
Even if Carrier's book is endorsed by peer review, he is still wrong if he describes the Jesus figure in Zech 6 is a pre-existent celestial being. The Jesus in Zech 6 is a man, a high priest of the Second Temple. You can check it for yourself in under two minutes.

I guess you are right, that I'm not arguing with you, since you seem to be deflecting everything back to Carrier and his peer-review panel. But you should be the one arguing with Carrier. Or at least investigate what he proposes. And you can do that right now! In under two minutes! At least check ONE version of the Bible on the Blue Letter Bible website and tell me that Carrier is wrong, according to that version. What harm would that do? Just check one version, IanS. I'll let you choose the version!

As to what was actually written in the particular copies of Zechariah that Carrier was referring to, and what the correct translations of the individual words are, neither you or I can possibly know. Because I am not, and afaik you are not, in a position to have read the actual text and personally translated it or had it translated by an independent reliable expert.
Well, maybe there is some edition of the Old Testament out there that contains a version of Zechariah that supports Carrier. Who knows?

As I've said, I'm not trying to convince you, but to show others how vacuous mythicist arguments can be. So sure! Maybe Carrier has a secret version of Zech that he is going by. All I know is that the versions of the different bibles on the Blue Letter Bible website show the Jesus in Zech 6 to be a man, a high priest of the Second Temple. You can check it for yourself on the Blue Letter Bible website. Why not spend two minutes and check one version for yourself! What harm can that do? It would at least have narrowed down the possible versions that Carrier may have used.

And to go back to an original point that you made - I think you were wrong to suggest with your own link (i.e. you brought it up) that Doherty disagreed with what Carrier has written and said re. that passage in Zechariah. At most, what Doherty is saying is that Carrier may be on shaky ground with certain assumptions about what the words in Zechariah actually meant, or what they were being taken to mean when read in conjunction with other texts (such as Isaiah and Daniel) by earlier religious writers like Philo.
Doherty there is addressing Carrier's overall point, about the link between Philo and Zech 6. Carrier basically acknowledges that the Zech 6 Jesus figure is a man, but then hypothesizes that an "esoteric" reading could be made that the Jesus was a pre-celestial figure. Doherty is right: it might be possible, but it is a stretch.

Let's put it this way: if a 'historicist' had proposed an "esoteric" reading -- against a plain reading otherwise -- in order to support a HJ, you would tear it apart. You'd call it apologetic rubbish, and rightly so. And if that historicist said "but I wrote it in a book that was peer-reviewed", you would see that response for the nonsense it is.

But I'm not righting to convince you, but to show the vacuousness of some mythicist arguments.

Carrier explains his reasoning for his "esoteric" readings in OHJ in the following sections: Element 6 (pages 81-83) and Element 40 (pages 200-205). They are a nightmare read. It takes a strongman's will to try to follow the bucking horse of his train of thought, full as it is of "maybe this" and "possibly that". Here's a challenge for you, IanS: try to summarize his argument, using any facts presented and ignoring his speculation. Keep any alcohol out of arm's reach while you try to do it. Carrier is an extremely poor communicator of complex ideas.
 
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I have identified a possible hallucination or possible falsehood.

Craig B said:
More on evidence, as regards a matter we have discussed here. Was Paul's "Lord" the same as Jesus? A source tells us he was. Acts 9....

Thanks for the evidence!!!

I am presently reading Acts of the Apostles.

There is far MORE EVIDENCE that LORD who is God is Jesus.

You have only shown us the "tip of the iceberg".

There are about ONE HUNDRED references to the Nomina Sacra for the LORD who is God in Acts and they also refer to Jesus.


The Lord Jesus is indeed a myth/fiction character in Acts .


Craig B, Thanks very much for the abundance of EVIDENCE in Acts of the Apostle.

Acts 22:8 KJV----8 And I answered , Who art thou , Lord? And he said unto me, I am Jesus of Nazareth, whom thou persecutest .

Acts 22:10 KJV----10 And I said , What shall I do , Lord? And the Lord said unto me, Arise , and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do .
 
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Thanks for the evidence!!!

I am presently reading Acts of the Apostles.

There is far MORE EVIDENCE that LORD who is God is Jesus.

You have only shown us the "tip of the iceberg".

There are about ONE HUNDRED references to the Nomina Sacra for the LORD who is God in Acts and they also refer to Jesus.


The Lord Jesus is indeed a myth/fiction character in Acts .


Craig B, Thanks very much for the abundance of EVIDENCE in Acts of the Apostle.
The NS are a feature of later mss only, and Acts 2:22 clearly distinguishes between Jesus and God. That's the problem when you substitute palaeographical for textual evidence. But will you take a telling? No, alas. Error all the way to final oblivion.
 
Just quote the evidence of Tacitus claiming to have known Jesus.

As soon as you can produce evidence of Tacitus or anyone else claiming to have met a human Jesus, then we can start checking to see if their claims hold up.

So no more evasions - just post the evidence of anyone writing to say how they had known Jesus.

Is this all because you erred and claimed Tacitus was not alive during the Great Fire? Hey mistakes happen.

By the way, if anyone claims that Historians must have "met" a historical person for their writings to be authentic and authoritative, that might set a new low for argument.

Different standards of Historical scholarship do not apply to matters of "dis"belief.
 
The NS are a feature of later mss only, and Acts 2:22 clearly distinguishes between Jesus and God.

You used the same supposed LATER MSS of Acts.

You have ZERO so-called early MSS of Acts.

You used the same supposed LATER MSS of Acts with the Nomina Sacra for the LORD who is God and Jesus to provide EVIDENCE that Paul's Lord is Jesus.

The MSS of Acts clearly identifies Jesus of Nazareth with the same Nomina Sacra as the Lord who is God.


Craig B said:
That's the problem when you substitute palaeographical for textual evidence. But will you take a telling? No, alas. Error all the way to final oblivion.

YOU have a problem. You don't know what are talking about. You are presently using the same supposed LATER MSS of Acts.
 
YOU have a problem. You don't know what are talking about. You are presently using the same supposed LATER MSS of Acts.
If you want to imagine that all these NS imply that the thing or person they refer to is God, then you are sunk more profoundly in error than I previously thought, and it may be that you will escape from this only at the expense of great toil and difficulty, which will be most distressing for you, l regret to say.

Here is a list of the expressions for which NS were used:
God; Lord; Jesus; Christ/Messiah; Son ; Spirit/Ghost; David; Cross/Stake; Mother; God Bearer i.e. Mother of God ; Father; Israel; Saviour; Human being/Man; Jerusalem ; Heaven/Heavens.

Do all these expressions refer to God? Is Jerusalem a God? Is David a God? Is a human being a God? Is Israel a God? Rubbish.
 
I haven't posted that version on the previous page; and I've only posted part of the letter.

Besides, So what? The fundamentals are the same.

The letter to Servianus, 134 AD, refers to Hadrian's experiences in Egypt in the 2nd century -

"There, those who worship Serapis are, in fact, Christians, and those who call themselves bishops of Christ are, in fact, devotees of Serapis"​
It shows worshipers of Serapis, in the times of Tacitus, Pliny-younger, and Suetonius, were called Christians.

Actually based on the variant they may have been called Chrestians which as I have noted before has very interesting connotations in it related words:

chraomai: consulting an oracle
chresterion: "the seat of an oracle" and "an offering to, or for, the oracle."
Chrestes: one who expounds or explains oracles, "a prophet, a soothsayer"
chresterios: one who belongs to, or is in the service of, an oracle, a god, or a "Master"theochrestos: "God-declared," or one who is declared by god


The term chresterios also would also explain why even in their own works the followers of Jesus tended to call themselves Chrestians: it was a corrupted from of the generic term chresterios.

In fact, The Theosophical Quarterly (1916) Volume 14 - Page 219 stated "Christos is one who explains oracles, 'a prophet and soothsayer,' and Chresterios one who serves an oracle or a god."

I'm not sure on how Greek make plurals but if Chresterions was a way to reference groups who served an oracle or a god then why the followers would call him Christ but themselves Chrestians (corrupted form of Chresterions) makes sense. Or perhaps Chrestians is the plural from of chresterios; Who here knowns ancient Greek?
 
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