The Historical Jesus III

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JI don't know. What are the answers?

For Robert Drews it was simple as far as the gap in Annals was concerned; those years weren't preserved because they didn't have anything about Jesus in them. ('The Lacura In Tacitus' Annals Book Five in the Light of the Christian Traditions American Journal of Ancient History 9 (1984) pp 112-22) Which is ironic because now some people point to 33 CE as being the year Jesus was crucified which we do have Annals for...which doesn't say anything about Jesus. Uh oops.


The fact that Christians were forging things like the Acts of Pilate with it supposed letter from Pilate confirming Jesus existence and his great deeds shows that they realized that the wildly popular Jesus of the four Gospels was NOT fitting with what they were finding in the records.
 
For Robert Drews it was simple as far as the gap in Annals was concerned; those years weren't preserved because they didn't have anything about Jesus in them. ('The Lacura In Tacitus' Annals Book Five in the Light of the Christian Traditions American Journal of Ancient History 9 (1984) pp 112-22) Which is ironic because now some people point to 33 CE as being the year Jesus was crucified which we do have Annals for...which doesn't say anything about Jesus. Uh oops.
Why oops? A troublesome preacher is put to death in Judaea - and the date 33 can't possibly be right if indeed Jesus was 33 years old because the traditional 1 AD is known to be an error and at all events can't be reconciled with Matthew and Luke - which contradict each other. So what significance can possibly attach to Tacitus omitting this?

Was Tacitus in the habit of recounting the deeds of Judaean messiahs, when these didn't affect the city of Rome? His mention of Christ is in the context of events in that city. Only when, according to the material available to him, the Christ movement reached Rome, does he notice it. So to propose conspiracy theories about why he said nothing in his account of the year 33 is utterly preposterous.
 
You can see me posting over there as "GakuseiDon". You might find my reviews on Doherty's and Carrier's theories interesting also:
1. Review of Doherty's "Jesus: Neither God Nor Man": http://members.optusnet.com.au/gakuseidon/JNGNM_Review1.html
2. Review of Carrier's "On the Historicity of Jesus": http://members.optusnet.com.au/gakuseidon/Carrier_OHJ_Review.html

I'm very critical of the "celestial incarnated Jesus" elements of both theories. There appears to be no evidence for such a belief, in early Christian writings, Jewish writings or pagan writings of the time. In fact, a "celestial incarnated being" is a contradictory concept based on the beliefs of that time as we understand them.

Really?

Remember both Herodotus and Euhemerus stated that Zeus had actually been a mortal king (Euhemerus said he was buried on Crete), Plutarch (c46 – 120 CE) as seeking to pin "Osiris down as an ancient king of Egypt", and Eusebius in the 4th century CE accepted Heracles as a flesh and blood man who by birth was an Egyptian and was a king in Argos

"When we say that Jesus Christ was produced without sexual union, was crucified and died, and rose again, and ascended to heaven, we propound nothing new or different from what you believe regarding those whom you call the sons of Jupiter." - Justin Martyr, First Apology 21:30

"Those to whom you bow were once men like yourselves" - Clement of Alexandria (d 217 CE) Cohortatio ad gentes

Remember that the demi-god heroes (and some of the gods themselves) of Greek and Roman mythology had adventures on Earth. So should we believe as the ancients did that they had once been living people?

Remember that the death and rebirth of Osiris also happened on Earth so are we to suppose Osiris was once a living person?

Romulus and Remus were born and raised by a she wolf on Earth so are to suppose Romulus and Remus were once living people?

This whole 'Jesus is stated to have interacted with people on Earth therefore was an actual person' idea is silly.

Even Justin Martyr admitted there were all sorts of analogies between Jesus and pagan deities / heroes of classical myth. His out was the Devil and his minons copied it in advance. I wish I was kidding but that is the explanation given.

TimCallahan provided this nice little quote with bolded parts:

The devils, accordingly, when they heard these prophetic words, said that Bacchus was the son of Jupiter, and gave out that he was the discoverer of the vine, and they number wine [or, the ass] among his mysteries; and they taught that, having been torn in pieces, he ascended into heaven. And because in the prophecy of Moses it had not been expressly intimated whether He who was to come was the Son of God, and whether He would, riding on the foal, remain on earth or ascend into heaven, and because the name of foal could mean either the foal of an ass or the foal of a horse, they, not knowing whether He who was foretold would bring the foal of an ass or of a horse as the sign of His coming, nor whether He was the Son of God, as we said above, or of man, gave out that Bellerophon, a man born of man, himself ascended to heaven on his horse Pegasus. And when they heard it said by the other prophet Isaiah, that He should be born of a virgin, and by His own means ascend into heaven, they pretended that Perseus was spoken of. And when they knew what was said, as has been cited above, in the prophecies written aforetime, Strong as a giant to run his course, they said that Hercules was strong, and had journeyed over the whole earth. And when, again, they learned that it had been foretold that He should heal every sickness, and raise the dead, they produced Æsculapius.

Even Justin Martyr in the 2nd century acknowledged the similarities in the Jesus stories to what became before. Don't see many scholars even acknowledging this fact; I wonder...oh no I don't it would because acknowledging this fact would make the more reasonable Christ Myth theories more plausible.
 
I've snipped the irrelevant parts, which is your whole post. None of your examples provide evidence for a belief in a celestial incarnated being.

I'd love to understand: what exactly did you think you were responding to?
 
GDon cannot remember the very Creed of the Christian Church!!!

Let us remind him.

The Letter of the Council of Nicaea
The Faith dictated in the Council.

We believe in One God, the Father Almighty, Maker of all things visible and invisible:—

And in One Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, begotten of the Father, Only-begotten, that is, from the essence of the Father; God from God, Light from Light, Very God from Very God, begotten not made, One in essence with the Father, by Whom all things were made, both things in heaven and things in earth; Who for us men and for our salvation came down and was made flesh, was made man, suffered, and rose again the third day, ascended into heaven, and comes to judge quick and dead.

And in the Holy Ghost.

And those who say, 'Once He was not,' and 'Before His generation He was not,' and 'He came to be from nothing,' or those who pretend that the Son of God is 'Of other subsistence or essence ,' or 'created' or 'alterable,' or 'mutable,' the Catholic Church anathematizes.

The Church which Canonised the NT did teach that Jesus was a celestial being, very God of Very God who came down from heaven and was made flesh.

Jesus is God Incarnate in the NT.

The Pauline writers did explain that THEIR Jesus was from heaven, God Creator, the Lord God, and God's Own Son made of a woman.
 
Doesn't evaluating evidence depend on what you are investigating.


Well I don‘t know whether I would say that “evaluating evidence depend(s) on what you are investigating" (I may need to think about those precise words). But “evidence is “evidence”, whatever the subject is. There is no such thing as “historical evidence”, as if the word had a different meaning in certain subjects such as biblical studies. The word and concept of "evidence" means exactly the same thing in any field of enquiry.

But what is under investigation here is the biblical writing. Where, apart from multiple other fatal problems (e.g. late anonymous authorship, interpolations, selective destruction of non-canonical texts, etc.), the gospels and letters are in every case claiming events that have since been “proved” to be physically impossible ... that took nearly 2000 years and the discovery/invention of what now call science to finally show that the miracle claims which fill all of that ancient biblical writing, are not actually true.

That is huge and very direct "proven" evidence finally showing that such biblical writing is not at all reliable in what it constantly claimed about an unknown un-evidenced messiah named "Jesus". And we should never overlook that. That is a very serious and massive nail in the biblical coffin.


Siting the Bible as evidence that Jesus is a god / demigod is one thing, since the existence of a god or demigod is not documented in any useful first hand source. It is an extraordinary claim that requires a higher standard than more or less likely.

Siting the Bible that a random human is more or less likely to have existed is a horse of a different color. We know normal(ish) humans have existed since the dawn of man, so the claim that a human existed and that a letter writer claims to have worked or talked to the brother of that man is a rather workaday thing.


But the bible does not say that Jesus was a "random human"!

The bible specifically insists that the was absolutely not a "random human"!


Letters are commonly used by historians to tease out aspects of history in a second or third hand kind of way. They may not be great sources of accuracy, but being professional, experienced historians, they take that into account.

I may not be expressing myself well, but I hope I got the sense across. I'd wager that assigning a value of accuracy or usefulness to letters can cause a fair amount of dispute among historians, but it seems a valid and rational tool.

I'm not married to this concept, so it would be useful to see what historians themselves say about this.


OK, well I think the above is probably answered in my earlier two replies (above), but just as further comment - we are not actually talking here about academic "historians", as if these people were secular neutral un-biased non-religious academic researchers of the kind found in almost all university faculties. We are talking here instead about biblical scholars and theologians. Those are the people who are writing to say that Jesus was a real figure, and saying that the evidence is shown in the bible.

Many of those people, Bart Ehrman for example, probably do genuinely think that the biblical writing is good enough to be considered as credible evidence to conclude (as Ehrman says all his academic colleagues do) that Jesus was "certainly" real.

But in any other properly objective un-biased neutral non-religious faculty of university research, a book like the bible, composed of selected very late anonymously written Christian devotional eulogies, claiming that other unknown people of the past had once witnessed a messiah of constantly supernatural proportions, would be immediately dismissed as no sort of credible evidence whatsoever.

So instead on me giving my views on any of that, let me ask you - do you really believe for example, that the gospels in particular (as distinct from the letters, which are in a slightly different category) are actually a credible source of factual evidence for what unknown anonymous Christian writers said about a supernatural messiah that none of them had ever known, but where those writers were certainly using passages from the OT to create Jesus stories?

Do you really think that is good enough to be admitted as credible evidence when we are trying to establish as a factual matter (in that sense it’s a matter of scientifically credible fact), whether or not there really was a living person called Jesus?

Keep in mind that we are talking here, not merely of what might be the case, or whether Jesus might possibly have been real, and whether various words in the gospels might be evidence of Jesus. We are trying to decide as a matter of fact, whether such words in the bible are actually credible as reliable evidence showing that he most likely did exist, i.e. with more probability than not. So the question is not whether certain words in g-Mark might be evidence such that Jesus might have existed. The question is whether or not those gospels demonstrate sufficient credibility and factual accuracy to be regarded as a genuine source of actual evidence showing that their accounts of Jesus were most likely true.
 
Not what I claimed. You wrote that Ehrman "was completely unable to show any credible evidence of a human Jesus as all". I responded that Ehrman has "good reason to think that there is credible evidence".


OK, so to repeat - then just quote what Ehrman is claiming as ""good reason to think that there is credible evidence". ....

... what is this credible "evidence" that Ehrman claims to show for a human Jesus ever known to anyone? Just post his evidence.


So let's start from the start. Ehrman thinks that the evidence points to Paul knowing Jesus' brother James. I acknowledge that YOU don't agree that this evidence is credible. But Ehrman does, and if he is correct then that is good reason to think that there is credible evidence for a historical Jesus.

Do you agree so far? If so, I'll continue.


Jesus Christ almighty "start (again) from the start"??? No! We have been at this for nearly 9 years now, and we are certainly not going let you re-run the whole dammed argument all over again.

Just post whatever you claim is the credible source of evidence showing a human Jesus, or in the case of Ehrman just post whatever you claim is a credible source of evidence shown by Ehrman.

Why can’t you just post the evidence? Where is the evidence of anyone ever writing to make a credible claim of ever having met a human Jesus? Just post it please.
 
No... Jewish men did not consider other Jewish men nor any other men to be gods and not even demi-gods.

It depends on what concept of god are you thinking. Kings, prophets and other exceptional men are called "divine" or similar in the Bible.
Moreover, in the first century the influence of hellenism on judaism was powerful. And in hellenism semidivine entities were frequent. So, some messianic characters are semi-divine as the "Son of Man" of Daniel. Think on Philo of Alexandria. According Paula Fredriksen (the last) judaism was not a monotheism. Perhaps she exaggerates a little.

Furthermore, the deification of Jesus is not immediate. It is a process that ends in the second century. Successive phases of sublimation were needed to finish in the concept of Jesus as a god on the same level as the Father.
 
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Why oops? A troublesome preacher is put to death in Judaea - and the date 33 can't possibly be right if indeed Jesus was 33 years old because the traditional 1 AD is known to be an error and at all events can't be reconciled with Matthew and Luke - which contradict each other. So what significance can possibly attach to Tacitus omitting this?

We can't use our dating system when looking at this.

Jesus was ΩΣΕΙ 30 (Luke 3:23) Now ΩΣΕΙ can be read as nearly or about depending on the context.

Luke also tells us that in "Now, in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar" (which works out to 18 September 28 to 17 September 29 CE) "the word of God came unto John the son of Zacharias in the wilderness. And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."

Some time between these two events Jesus was (supposedly) baptized by John so it reasonable that Jesus started his ministry some time AFTER "the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar" perhaps 30 CE

If we take gJohn's three passovers as being three years then the 33 CE date makes sense regardless of what age Jesus actually was.


Was Tacitus in the habit of recounting the deeds of Judaean messiahs, when these didn't affect the city of Rome? His mention of Christ is in the context of events in that city. Only when, according to the material available to him, the Christ movement reached Rome, does he notice it. So to propose conspiracy theories about why he said nothing in his account of the year 33 is utterly preposterous.

Then why not preserve the Annals from 29-31 CE unless one expected Jesus to mentioned in them and he was not? In fact this time frame would perfectly cover the three passovers of gJohn if one assumed Jesus began his ministry in 29 CE (first passover is in 29, second 30, finally one is in 31)

In fact, it is gJohn Irenaeus uses in Against Heresies to say Jesus had to be 45 or older before he was crucified:

"For when the Lord said to them, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day; and he saw it, and was glad," they answered Him, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?" (John 8:56-57) Now, such language is fittingly applied to one who has already passed the age of forty, without having as yet reached his fiftieth year, yet is not far from this latter period. But to one who is only thirty years old it would unquestionably be said, "You are not yet forty years old.""

Here Irenaeus's logic is spot on. More over Irenaeus' Demonstration (74) states "For Herod the king of the Jews and Pontius Pilate, the governor of Claudius Caesar, came together and condemned Him to be crucified." This works out to 42-44 CE (Herod Agrippa II did not oversee any part of Galilee until the time of Nero in 55 CE)

Discounting the shoehorning of Pontius Pilate into this time period we have a reasonably good idea just how old Irenaeus thought Jesus was "in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar": a minimum of 30 in 28 CE (This agrees with the text of Against Heresies as we now have it)

A 34 old Jesus in 28 CE would be 50 years old in 44 CE which agrees with Irenaeus Demonstration's time frame and his claim of Jesus being 50 years old when Crucified in Against Heresies. In fact this nearly agrees with the c6 BCE that one gets from Matthew (For Herod to kill all the boys two years old and younger mean Herod took nearly two years to figure out he had been tricked and decide 'hey I need to kill that kid, NOW')

If we take Irenaeus point that Jesus had to be past 40 for gJohn to be valid then it isn't until 35 CE that we get to 41 (and that is assuming 34 in 28 CE)
 
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Exactly... evidence other than fairy tales is required... for example the facts about how they conquered and pillaged and generally behaved ... well ... like what people of those benighted epochs believed gods behaved.

I agree. Evidence does not depend of the legendary features attributed to a person. Evidence depends of facts and deductive/inductive reasoning. In legal processes evidences are not as strong as in natural sciences. In History the evidence is not as strong as in legal procedures. Furthermore, historical evidence is gradual. We have usually more strong evidence of the twentieth century than of the Antiquity. Moreover, different characters and facts of ancient history are more evident than others. So, the public deeds of Julius Caesar are less evident that the life of Winston Churchill. (In general). But Julius Caesar's deeds are more evident that those of Keops.

There is not an evidence, in strong sense, of the existence of Jesus of Galilee, similar to Julius Caesar, for example. No archaeological evidences, not contemporary testimonies, too much legend. I would speak better of “probability”. But I think that his existence is more probable that his not-existence. And I am speaking with a high degree of caution.
 
Jesus Christ almighty "start (again) from the start"??? No! We have been at this for nearly 9 years now, and we are certainly not going let you re-run the whole dammed argument all over again.

Just post whatever you claim is the credible source of evidence showing a human Jesus, or in the case of Ehrman just post whatever you claim is a credible source of evidence shown by Ehrman.

Why can’t you just post the evidence? Where is the evidence of anyone ever writing to make a credible claim of ever having met a human Jesus? Just post it please.
You have determined what evidence is. In your opinion it can only be the name of someone who knew Jesus.

Right, we don't have that. OK? Nobody is going to give you that. If you think that refutes HJ, fine. You've made your point. Good. Make it again if you want, a thousand times.

But no authority gives you the right to say we are certainly not going let you re-run the whole dammed argument all over again. Oh yes you are, unless you have been given the power to dictate to others how they are to conduct their arguments.
 
It depends on what concept of god are you thinking. Kings, prophets and other exceptional men are called "divine" or similar in the Bible.
Moreover, in the first century the influence of hellenism on judaism was powerful. And in hellenism semidivine entities were frequent. So, some messianic characters are semi-divine as the "Son of Man" of Daniel. Think on Philo of Alexandria. According Paula Fredriksen (the last) judaism was not a monotheism. Perhaps she exaggerates a little.

Furthermore, the deification of Jesus is not immediate. It is a process that ends in the second century. Successive phases of sublimation were needed to finish in the concept of Jesus as a god on the same level as the Father.

Right. We need to remember that Roman culture at that time had the concepts of numen ("divinity", "divine presence", or "divine will." depending on context) and genius loci (guardian spirit), and the Emperor was worshiped as both rather than as a deus (deity). The closest modern term is the Japanese word kami and this means that the worship Pliny the Younger describes could have been to a deus (actually to a deity), a numen (on par with archangels and saints), or a genius loci (akin to a guardian angel)

I raised this point some time ago:

What about "Christos" being an archangel or these guys preying both God and "Christos" (as something other then a "god")?

"Note that Pliny's hesitant phrase 'as if to a God' (quasi deo) could reflect his response to the exoteric myth (if his Christian informants were simply repeating the Gospels in which Jesus allegorically presented as a historical man) or the esoteric one (Jesus then being confusingly explained to him as a celestial archangel or demigod they pray to, but not exactly to 'God'). It could also be a textual corruption, as there is some external evidence Pliny may have originally written Christo et Deo, 'to Christ and God' or Christo ut Deo 'to Christ as God' See Doherty, Jesus: Neither God nor Man pg 64"

"There can be no question about the reading even though the MSS have et deo..." (Joseph Barber Lightfoot (1885) The Apostolic Fathers pg 57.)

If the MSS being used for the translation were actually saying "ad canendum Christo et deo" as Lightfoot admitted over 100 years ago and Carrier theorized may have been originally written then the HJ crowd is (surprise, surprise) forcing the translation of the MSS to say something that it in reality does NOT say.

If Pliny really did write 'to Christ and God' then he could have seen Christos as something SEPARATE from "god" in the Jewish sense as he understood it. My question is would Pliny have understood Jewish concepts of archangels and guardian angels (which there is evidence Jews may have revered as early as the 1st century BCE) as being on par with the more familiar numen and genius loci of his own pagan beliefs?
 
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I am showing that simply because Paul called a guy name James "Brother of the Lord" that it is NOT evidence for an actual flesh and blood Jesus. Nothing more nothing less.

You know, I wonder what you would accept as evidence short of some mummified remains with a roman death certificate. Could you list examples?

Hong Xiuquan, the leader of the Taiping Rebellion 1850 to 1864, said he was the younger brother of Jesus. Does this mean we have "credible evidence for a historical Jesus" in the 19th century? No, so why in the name of logic should it be so for the 1st century?

You really can't see the difference between those?

We are not even sure if Paul men "brother" in the biological or spiritual sense.

No we don't, not for certain. Should we discount any conclusion in the basence of certainty?

That's my problem with your line of argument: not that the alternative you propose is impossible or improbable, but that you use its mere existence to somehow show that the 'consensus' is wrong, ridiculous even.
 
Absolutely. Of course any educated person should know very well what is credible evidence vs. what is not.

And you're doing it again: are you or I qualified to determine what evidence is genuine or credible when it comes to historical research?

Of course we have a general idea of what credible evidence is. I'm asking you if, on this specific topic, either of us have enough knowledge and expertise to challenge historians.
 
It could also be a textual corruption, as there is some external evidence Pliny may have originally written Christo et Deo, 'to Christ and God' or Christo ut Deo 'to Christ as God' See Doherty, Jesus: Neither God nor Man pg 64"

"There can be no question about the reading even though the MSS have et deo..." (Joseph Barber Lightfoot (1885) The Apostolic Fathers pg 57.)

If the MSS being used for the translation were actually saying "ad canendum Christo et deo" as Lightfoot admitted over 100 years ago and Carrier theorized may have been originally written then the HJ crowd is (surprise, surprise) forcing the translation of the MSS to say something that it in reality does NOT say.
That's very true. If the text says something else then it doesn't say what it says. For all I know it was originally a recipe for pancake batter. Then the HJ crowd would be REALLY wrong, wouldn't they?
 
You have determined what evidence is. In your opinion it can only be the name of someone who knew Jesus.

Right, we don't have that. OK? Nobody is going to give you that. If you think that refutes HJ, fine. You've made your point. Good. Make it again if you want, a thousand times.

But no authority gives you the right to say we are certainly not going let you re-run the whole dammed argument all over again. Oh yes you are, unless you have been given the power to dictate to others how they are to conduct their arguments.

I am wondering how many historical characters usually admitted by historians would be erased by the criterion of witnesses of first hand. The students of Philosophy would be very happy. The programmes of History of Philosophy would be very short!
 
The polemic about HJ would not exist if Christianity had not been the dominant religion in Europe for centuries. Mythicists and dogmatists probably would not exist and the Wikipedia entry for “Jesus of Galilee” would be something as this:

Jesus of Galilee was a leader of a little Jewish sect in Palestine first century. He was condemned and crucified by the Roman authority around 30 EC, under the charges of sedition. It seems that he preached the imminent coming of the “Kingdom of God” and believed in himself as one appointed by God to prepare the Day of Judgement. After his death his disciples claimed his resurrection. They are still waiting his second coming, called “parousia”.

And little more.
 
OK, so to repeat - then just quote what Ehrman is claiming as ""good reason to think that there is credible evidence". ....

... what is this credible "evidence" that Ehrman claims to show for a human Jesus ever known to anyone? Just post his evidence.
I've already done so. In his book Ehrman refers to the following:

1. There are numerous independent accounts of Jesus' life in the sources lying behind the Gospels

2. There are extensive writings from one first-century author, Paul, who acquired his information within a couple of years of Jesus' life and who actually knew, first hand, Jesus' closest disciple Peter and his own brother James.

Now I acknowledge that the above is not credible evidence to YOU. But if Ehrman believes that the evidence shows, say, that Paul actually knew first hand Jesus' closest disciple Peter and Jesus' own brother James, surely you'd agree that this would constitute credible evidence to Ehrman.

So what is the evidence that Paul knew Jesus' brother James? We have "James brother of the Lord" in Paul, we have a James as brother of Jesus in the Gospel of Mark, and we have "James brother of Jesus called Christ" in Josephus. Josephus was active in politics at the time that James was killed, so was a contemporary in time and space.

Either gMark is dependent on Paul or it is independent. If it is independent, then it is extra validation. If it is dependent, then gMark gives weight to the reading that Paul meant a blood brother. And the James statement is generally regarded as original to Josephus.

That's pretty credible evidence right there. Now, again, I acknowledge that the above is not credible evidence to YOU. You no doubt have "but maybe something else!" reasons for each of those points. Fair enough. But to say that Ehrman has no credible evidence because you disagree that the evidence is credible is no more relevant than a creationist claiming evolutionists have no credible evidence because the creationist doesn't find it credible.

Let me repeat, since this is the sticking point I wanted to address: I acknowledge that the above is not credible evidence to YOU. But to phrase things in the way it is done here, that Ehrman has "no credible evidence" is not accurate. I have no doubt that Ehrman finds that the readings provide credible evidence. You should phrase it that Ehrman "has no evidence that I find credible".
 
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