That tells me nothing.
Telling me consciousness and awareness mean the same thing to you (to me, they are quantitatively different) does not tell me what you think either one is.
All you've done is define two kinds of operations and arbitrarily assigned the words "conscious" and "aware" to each of them. You haven't established that the operations you've chosen are sufficient to produce consciousness by the standard english definition. You've essentially constructed your own, non-falsifiable, self-referential system of classification. You're not describing reality; you're essentially making one up and challenging people to disprove it.
You also told me that you thought consciousness was the same thing as what psychologists term arousal. Well, you can't do that, because awareness and arousal aren't the same thing.
I said that arousal is an instance of it; not the definition of the term
Yes, but you aren't using the standard definition of qualia either. We've pointed that out to you before.
You were wrong then and you're wrong now:
qua⋅le
/ˈkwɑli, -leɪ, ˈkweɪli/ Show Spelled Pronunciation [kwah-lee, -ley, kwey-lee] Show IPA
–
noun, plural -li⋅a /-liə/ Show Spelled Pronunciation [-lee-uh] Show IPA . Philosophy.
1. a quality, as bitterness, regarded as an independent object.
2. a sense-datum or feeling having a distinctive quality.
Origin:
1665–75; < L quāle, neut. sing. of quālis of what sort
qua·le (kwä'lē) Pronunciation Key
n.
pl. qua·li·a (-lē-ə)
A property, such as whiteness, considered independently from things having the property.
[From Latin quāle, neuter of quālis, of what kind; see
quality.]
All of my definitions, clarifications, and elaborations have been consistent with the standard definition of the word "qualia". First you claim that I never provided a definition. Then when I do provide a definition -- AGAIN -- you want to claim that it isn't the actual definition. Sir, you truly are a dishonest piece of work.
AkuManiMani said:
Again, consciousness is qualitative experience of any kind.
That's not a definition. It might look like a definition, but it's not.
You making a fiat declaration does not negate a fact. That
is a definition, as coherent and clear as any provided in the dictionary. You simply refuse to accept it.
What's a "qualitative experience"? What does it do? How does it interact?
That's the main point I've been making for over two dozen pages now. Its an open scientific question that needs
real answers. Those questions are part of the so called 'hard problem'. Before computer programmers can have any hope of simulating or reproducing 'qualitative experience' its going to have to be sufficiently defined by the physical sciences -- which has not happened yet. The operational definition being put forward by S-AI ideologues is not a scientific definition of the phenomenon in question; its a dogmatic declaration made by fiat.
So a qualitative experience is a thought, or a class of thought?
Not exactly. Thoughts would be a
class of qualitative experience because they have subjective qualities and are experienced by subjects.
AKuManiMani said:
Merely processing information [self-referentially or otherwise] is not sufficient to produce such states since they continue even during periods of complete unconsciousness.
Sorry, that does not follow.
All that demonstrates is one particular self-referential process is largely inactive in these states.
It proves,
conclusively, that self-referential processing IAOI, is not sufficient to produce conscious experience --
period. Your stubborn refusal to admit this does not change the facts.
Okay, I'll ignore the inadequacies of that definition and just ask you this:
How do you think it is possible to have a "lucid subjective experience" of information except by processing that information? What is a "lucid subjective experience" if it's not information processing?
I'll say it again:
Every physical process processes information. Simply defining a phenomenon as "information processing" is
not a sufficient definition of a phenomenon.
I have one. If you want to address it, you have to define your counter-claims operationally.
Otherwise, as has been noted several times, all you are saying is "It just feels wrong to me."
Your 'definition' is a non-definition. It can be used to describe
any physical process and interaction. This has nothing to do with how your conclusion
'feels'-- its a stark, demonstrable, ontological
fact. The only way you can actually defend your position is by mere fiat and stubborn insistence. Even if one accepts your definition as correct then everything can be classified as 'aware' or 'conscious'; in which case its absolutely useless as a definition anyway.
Sorry, all I note is self-referential information processing.
That's because you're switching definitions. Unconscious individuals are [switch definitions] conscious.
To be more precise, there are conscious processes going on in all unconscious individuals short of outright brain death. There is one specific conscious process that is inactive, partly, largely, or entirely.
Then you sir, are operating from a fiat, circular tautology. If even
unconscious individuals are 'conscious' by your definition then your definition is absolutely
useless.
Sorry, you must have missed it. Here it is: Self-referential information processing. There. Easy, isn't it?
Easy and wrong.
Here's a challenge for you; assuming that your definition of consciousness is valid, prove that atoms and molecular compounds are not 'conscious'.