Why bother, one has already been pointed out and you’ve so far managed to avoid it.
Are you claiming to have forgotten that you were going to look up what the sign above Jesus said?
I meant a proposition from the
other set of passages, obviously. What does the one have to do with the other? And remember, the reason for which I was looking the other Gospel passages up was
not to see whether they contained an inconsistency as such, but to see if delphi_ote's proposed
resolution of the inconsistency (each author seeing part of the sign) was essentially the same kind of solution I identified for the "last words". I'm not sure that it is. I think the "Crucifixion sign" contradiction may be real rather than illusory.
Now, since you failed to identify any specific
logical problem with the "last words" solution, can we drop this as bluess has sagely suggested? After all, I want to make sure all your legitimate questions are answered, but we have probably passed the "point of diminishing returns".
[Actually your entire premise is that the events likely occurred in this particular order, you added a bit more but that is the entire basis of your premise.
No. The idea was simply that
if, hypothetically, events occurred in that order, then none of the source texts is explicitly contradicted. You will note that I expressly stated that I
did not personally feel it was the most natural or most likely interpretation, and I do not particularly care whether Gospel events occurred in any order or no order at all. It was merely a solution to a little logical puzzle posed by another poster, if you will - not a solution to the question of what actually happened or how anyone ought to read the Gospels.