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Originally posted by LegalPenguin Now, if someone in France comes up with an idea that makes a lot of sense, and a judge agrees with it, what then? He has to rule otherwise becuase France thought of it first?
I dunno. What's the date on these things? Perhaps it's in response to the death penalty ruling recently, where the judges referenced foreign laws against the death penalty for 17 year olds as part of the "standards" that have changed what is considered to be "cruel and unusual".
The judge will rule the same way and just won't mention the French rule.
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