little grey rabbit
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Diagnostic criteria for pedophilia requires the individual to be either primarily or exclusively attracted to prepubescents. The girl in question was post-puberty and there is no evidence that Polanski is primarily or only attracted to children.
Incorrect on a number of accounts.
First you are misquoting the IVD and Diagnostic which includes prepubescent and early pubescent children and specifically states thirteen year olds fall into this catagory.
The ICD (International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems) (F65.4) defines pedophilia as "a sexual preference for children, boys or girls or both, usually of prepubertal or early pubertal age."[1] Under this system's criteria, a person 16 years of age or older meets the definition if they have a persistent or predominant sexual preference for prepubescent children at least five years younger than them.[2]
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders 4th edition Text Revision (DSM-IV-TR) outlines specific criteria for use in the diagnosis of this disorder. These include the presence of sexually arousing fantasies, behaviors or urges that involve some kind of sexual activity with a prepubescent child (age 13 or younger, though puberty can vary) for six months or more, and that the subject has acted on these urges or suffers from distress as a result of having these feelings. The criteria also indicate that the subject should be 16 or older and that child or children they fantasize about are at least five years younger than them, though ongoing sexual relationships between a 12-13 year old and a late adolescent are advised to be excluded. A diagnosis is further specified by the sex of the children the person is attracted to, if the impulses or acts are limited to incest, and if the attraction is "exclusive" or "nonexclusive".[4]
Second, the word pedophile has a history and a definition long before the DSMMD was compiled. In anycase Roman Polanski falls under the DSMMD definition
Third, pedophilia is the act. Presumably pedophilia occurs whether or not the perpetrator can be classed as a mentally ill pedophile. He may be a pedophile without a mental disorder.
It is a bit like claiming a senator that cruises for male sex in the toilets is not a homosexual. He may not be exclusively homosexual in orientation but he commited homosexual acts.