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Superconductivity at room temperature??

Call it what you like: I do not really care a damn! I cannot see why you are having a crusade about your preferred definition of superconduction. In my opinion it is absurd.

Clearly you do give a damn, or you would have simply accepted the standard definition and moved on. And if it's absurd for me to defend the standard definition because it;s not ultimately important to your point, then how absurd is it for you to continue to challenge it when it gains you nothing?
 
I tried a conversion for you. I'm not too hot on imperial measurements, but I checked how long a yard is, and according to Google the average size of a yard in the U.S. is around 30x35 feet. Therefore the length of a yard equates to roughly 10.67 metres.

Hope this helps.


I am applying this to my work, but I find it slow going. However, I have added a calorimeter to my measuring instruments, so I hope to be able to generate some very good data soon.
 
It's absolutely possible. In fact, it's trivial. exp[-iwt]. That's your standing wave. It's got zero momentum, and zero momentum uncertainty. It's not normalizable, but then neither is exp[i(kx-wt)].
A non-normalizable wave can ONLY exist within Plato’s mathematical universe: NOT within reality. Our universe is not infinitely large and we are arguing PHYSICS, not mathematics which do not correspond to reality within our universe. Furthermore, you ONLY get stationary waves when there are boundary conditions. Thus to say that exp[-iwt] is a standing wave is utter claptrap; since the simplest standing wave requires the summation of at least two mathematical waves (each of whch can only exist in Plato's universe): i.e. exp[-i(kx-wt)] running into one direction and exp[+i(kx-wt)] running into the other direction.
If it's truly stationary, then obviously it cannot diffract, because diffraction requires motion.
Wow! At last you got something right: Congratulations! You might even argue logic all the way one day!
And if you want to try looking at a simple two-slit diffraction experiment in the particle's reference frame, that's not a problem: the screen is moving, and exp[-iwt] is only valid ahead of the screen. Behind the screen, the particle is no longer simply stationary. It picks up momentum, in particular lateral momentum relative to the direction of the screen.
What is the force that accelerates it laterally, or does it pick up monentum by violating Newton's second law?
and the part of the wave which the screen passes by starts to spread out after the screen passes.
I thought it is a particle which can only move through one slit at a time? So even though you might grab a force out of thin air at one slit, how does the electron pick up momentum at the other slit?
But then, that was true in the case of a stationary screen too: exp[i(kx-wt)] is only valid before the particle reaches the screen, on the far side of the screen the solution has a spread of lateral components, and these lateral components are responsible for interference.
Yes this is always true, when you have an actual wave moving simultaneously through BOTH slits.

But in the standard dogma, which you defend with an unhealthy passion, it is claimed that the electron cannot move through both slits simultaneously. So you are obviously talking Voodoo nonsense.
In other words, you've imagined a conflict which doesn't exist.
So there exists no conflict when an electron diffracts through a double slit? Clearly Feynman does not agree with you (He called it the ONLY mystery in physics) and Zeilinger also claims that “Ter iss a contratiction in tere”. So stop arguing through your neck,
 
I do not think that there is ANY scientist alive who NEVER made many mistakes before getting to the correct answer.

That may be. You, by contrast, never get the correct answer.

In your case it is easy to give whopping examples that you do not even understand the most elementary aspects of physics: For example:

1. You do not realise that if you have free charge-carriers within a material which can be accelerated, an applied electric field can never be cancelled within such a material while a current is flowing. This is primary school physics.

2. You do not realise that even when these charge carriers can convey a current without experiencing ANY resistance to their motion, they will still be accelerated and therefore an applied electric field will still not be cancelled: i.e. a voltage will be measured. This is also primary school physics.

3. Even worse, you claim that under these conditions Ohm’s law will cancel the applied electric field; showing that you do not have a clue about the primary school physics which determines when Ohm’s law applies and when it does NOT apply.

4. You think that when you solve Schroedinger’s wave equation under circular symmetry to obtain a radial solution PSI(r) and a angular solution exp[i(theta)] that the parameter (theta) defines a scalar field which, after taking the gradient, becomes a circular vector field. This proves that you do not understand the most fundamentally simple aspects of vector calculus. The fact is that the quantum number generated by (theta) has NOTHING to do with a loop integral at all. It is mandated by the symmetry alone that (theta) must by n*(pi). And this is the SAME constant value at EVERY point within the wave field. “n” can take on different integer values which define a set of indistinguishable degenerate solutions.

Should I proceed further?

As always, everything you post contains basic conceptual errors. I'm very bored with conversing with you, so I'll just take your first point: "You do not realise that if you have free charge-carriers within a material which can be accelerated, an applied electric field can never be cancelled within such a material while a current is flowing. This is primary school physics."

You have that wrong (of course). It is the presence of free charge carriers that allows applied E-fields to be cancelled. The presence of additional (steady) currents doesn't change that. For instance, suppose the charge carriers have arranged themselves so as to cancel an applied E-field, and then in addition one adds a current. If the resistance in the material is zero (as in a superconductor), the current will be constant and the E-field remains zero (although of course the B-field is not). That follows immediately from Maxwell's equations.

For some reason that I cannot fathom, you refuse to foloow the obvious route one expects on an educational forum: One should not prejudge science for ad hominem reasons: But on this thread you, Ben m, Ziggurat, Reality Check, etc. has been doing exactly this all along. Your behaviour gives the best reason why the peer review system must be changed so that the author knows the identity of the peer reviewer while the peer reviewer does not know the identity of the author.

It's mildly interesting, if not surprising, that your near-absolute wrongness in physics extends to your view of this thread and its participants. Nearly all of the exchanges we've had here began with false statements you've made about physics, us trying to explain to you why they're false, and you not getting it. That happened over and over and over and over. After all that, we've formed a pretty solid opinion of you and your abilities in physics - and it's hard to think of anything further from "prejudgement".

Scientific peer review, like all other human systems, is far from perfect. But if the papers you had rejected were anything like the quack nonsense you've been telling us here, it worked quite perfectly in your case.
 
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Clearly you do give a damn, or you would have simply accepted the standard definition and moved on.
Why should I accept a definition with which I disagree, even if I do not care a damn if other people want to be so silly to think that this definition was written by God on the stone tablets that Moses brought down from Mount Sinai.
And if it's absurd for me to defend the standard definition because it is not ultimately important to your point,
You are the one that intimates that it is important to my point; and who is on a crusade about it. You want, for some absurd reason which I cannot fathom, to, like an inquisitor, force me to accept a definition which I think is wrong. I do not have to do this you know: You probably have not noticed that we are not living in that dark ages anymore.
then how absurd is it for you to continue to challenge it when it gains you nothing?
So your argument is that a person must only challenge a wrong definition if he/she can “gain something out of it”. Yes this seems to define your attitude exactly: You will probably only oppose a lie or an injustice in the world if "you can gain something out of it". I think that there is a definition in the text books on psychiatry for a person who consistently acts like this.

I will be back later on in the week, and I hope that the discussion has then returned to the actual physics of the actual topic of this thread: "superconduction at room temperature".
 
A non-normalizable wave can ONLY exist within Plato’s mathematical universe: NOT within reality.

Then why do you care about how exp[+i(kx-wt)] transforms? That's not normalizable.

Furthermore, you ONLY get stationary waves when there are boundary conditions.

What's the boundary condition for a harmonic oscillator?

Thus to say that exp[-iwt] is a standing wave is utter claptrap

I never used the term "standing wave". I said it's stationary. And it is.

since the simplest standing wave requires the summation of at least two mathematical waves (each of whch can only exist in Plato's universe): i.e. exp[-i(kx-wt)] running into one direction and exp[+i(kx-wt)] running into the other direction.

I imagine you're trying to refer to infinite square well potential solutions. In which case, 1) this isn't the complete solution, 2) you made a sign error in one of your terms, and 3) you're starting with the "stationary" solution, if you transform it you get a traveling solution. And yes, this traveling solution can indeed include a exp[-iwt] term AND be normalizable, if you pick the right velocity.

Wow! At last you got something right: Congratulations! You might even argue logic all the way one day! What is the force that accelerates it laterally, or does it pick up monentum by violating Newton's second law?

The potential gradient of the screen, obviously. What did you think the screen was?

I thought it is a particle which can only move through one slit at a time?

Why would you think that? Or are you being foolishly facetious?

But in the standard dogma, which you defend with an unhealthy passion, it is claimed that the electron cannot move through both slits simultaneously.

Uh, no. The "standard dogma" is that the electron moves through both. Even the Copenhagen interpretation which you hate so much agrees on that. So what the hell are you even talking about?

So there exists no conflict when an electron diffracts through a double slit?

There's no conflict between the two different reference frames. That's quite correct.

Clearly Feynman does not agree with you (He called it the ONLY mystery in physics) and Zeilinger also claims that “Ter iss a contratiction in tere”. So stop arguing through your neck,

None of this applies to the different reference frames which one can view the problem from, which was your objection. So you've moved your goalpost onto a stawman. Quite the trick.
 
Why should I accept a definition with which I disagree, even if I do not care a damn if other people want to be so silly to think that this definition was written by God on the stone tablets that Moses brought down from Mount Sinai.

Because of what definitions are. Words aren't defined the way you want them to be. They're defined by how the people who use them collectively agree to define them. Refusing to accept an definition is foolish and pointless. You're tilting at windmills, Quixote.

You are the one that intimates that it is important to my point

False. I've said the opposite multiple times.

and who is on a crusade about it.

Yet here you are, continuing to argue about what you claim you don't care about.

You want, for some absurd reason which I cannot fathom, to, like an inquisitor, force me to accept a definition which I think is wrong.

You can't call a definition wrong. A definition is right, by definition.

I do not have to do this you know

Sure. You could also insist that the sky is pink, and that the definition of blue is wrong.
 
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Posts: 8,738 Originally Posted by Mashuna
I tried a conversion for you. I'm not too hot on imperial measurements, but I checked how long a yard is, and according to Google the average size of a yard in the U.S. is around 30x35 feet. Therefore the length of a yard equates to roughly 10.67 metres.

Hope this helps.
I am applying this to my work, but I find it slow going. However, I have added a calorimeter to my measuring instruments, so I hope to be able to generate some very good data soon.

I am beginning to understand the problem here. I suggest you use inches but do all your calculations under the sexagesimal system. Sixty has been conducive to superconductivity when the earth is in apogee, so you may have to wait a few months.
 
I am beginning to understand the problem here. I suggest you use inches but do all your calculations under the sexagesimal system. Sixty has been conducive to superconductivity when the earth is in apogee, so you may have to wait a few months.


Do you have any advice as to how I can apply this to my calorimeter?
 
I know Dirac claimed that he did it and that everybody has believed him ever since. But there is only one way to test whether a differential equation is ommensurate with relativity, and that is to solve the equation for a wave within an inertial reference frame, and then to transform this solution into another inertial reference frame by means of the Lorentz transformation.
And you now show your ignorance: That is exactly what the proof that the Dirac equation is relativistically invariant is. Basically
  • Express it in terms of the gamma matrices (a separate proof shows that these are relativistically invariant).
    Show that the wave function is also transforms correctly for Lorentz transformations.
The Wikipedia article (Covariant Form and Relativistic Invariance) shows this
If we now define the transformed spinor
e50bc67787ae6018b6f7bf0f40cb3b89.png
then we have the transformed Dirac equation in a way that demonstrates manifest relativistic invariance:
32cacfed3f5a76c61be67762ede945c7.png

Why should I look up a proof which I nearly know by heart?
Then you should know that this proof is the proof that the Dirac equation is relativistically invariant :jaw-dropp!

You have not given any definition that is physically possible. A “point” is a mathematical abstraction which can only be defined taking the limit of a mathematical equation: IT CANNOT exist as a physical entity.
That is ignorant - a point is of course a mathematical quantity. IT CANNOT exist as a physical entity because it is a mathematical entity.
However it can describe a physical entity.

So what the hell is it then.
Your ignorance continues: A wave function a mathematical entity that maps the possible configurations of a system to complex numbers.
So when that systen is a single free electron, the wave function maps the possible positions, momentua (and for the Dirac equation, spin) of teh electron to complex numbers.

As stated before: A wave function is an abstract mathematical function that maps from the possible states of a system to a complex number.

So how do such a wave actually in REALITY diffracts?
It does not.
The electron actually in REALITY diffracts as measured in REALITY, e.g.the two-slit experiment (when which slit the electron passed through is unknown).
The electron also actually in REALITY does not diffract as measured in REALITY, e.g.the two-slit experiment (when a measurment of which slit the electron passed through is made).
 
In text books the relationships are given as (delta)x*(delta)p is equal or larger than (hbar); which means that the relationship cannot have an actual value smaller than 1/2(hbar).
That is not what I asked: The question is where is your statement of the derived as iin PDF


I have already referred you to Yukawa who used the actual value for g as equal to unity to predict the energy of mesons.
Wrong: He used this as a lower limit for the energy of mesons (what we know call pi mesons or poins) - and got it wrong!
Actually he got it right as a lower limit (mass of about 100 MeV) but the actual mass of mesons is greater then the lower limit, e.g. 139 MeV.


They are not doubly-charged and can therefore NOT be Cooper pairs.
If they are not Cooper pairs, i.e. are electrons, then they will always scatter (there will be electrons above the Fermi surface due to thermal excitation) and there will always be resistivity.
There is the isotope effect which is easily explained by the formation of Cooper pairs.

Your 'superconducting orbitals' term also implies that your theory just involves electrons (if you add in phonons then we are back to Copper pairs) and so cannot describe superconduction.
 
Why should I accept a definition with which I disagree ...

“When I use a word,” Humpty Dumpty said, in rather a scornful tone, “it means just what I choose it to mean—neither more nor less.”
“The question is,” said Alice, “whether you can make words mean so many different things.”
“The question is,” said Humpty Dumpty, “which is to be master that’s all.”

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Humpty_dumpty#In_Through_the_Looking-Glass
 
You are deliberately trying to distort my argument:
Then you need to state your argument clearly.


Obviously, when you have a circular superconductor and increase the current through it with a battery, and then quickly remove the battery BEFORE the resistance of the battery can substantially reduce the current when switching it out of the circuit, the remaining current might keep on flowing around this purely superconducting circuit without an electric field within the superconducting ring.
The experiment is a circular semiconductor where a current is created (not increased) using a battery and then the battery is disconnected.
It does not matter when the battery is disconnected so long as there is a current. The current does keep flowing without the applied electric field because there is no resistivity to dissipate it.

There can then not be an electric field since YOU have removed the battery. BUT THIS DOES NOT MEAN THAT CHARGE-CARRIERS THAT CAN BE ACCELERATED ARE SWITCHING OFF THE APPLIED ELECTRIC-FIELD BY THEMSELVES WHILE THE BATTERY IS PART OF THE CURCUIT.
BUT THIS DOES MEAN THAT I SAID THAT CHARGE-CARRIERS THAT CAN BE ACCELERATED ARE SWITCHING OFF THE APPLIED ELECTRIC-FIELD BY THEMSELVES WHILE THE BATTERY IS PART OF THE CURCUIT.
This is what happens in superconducting blocks when an external electric field is applied to them, i.e. the electric field pushes the Cooper paris to one side of the block

WHAT IS EXPERIMENTALLY OBSERVED IS THAT THE APPLIED ELECTRIC FIELD IS SWITCHED OFF WITHIN A SUPERCONDUCTOR ELEMENT EVEN WHILE THE BATTERY IS STILL PART OF THE CIRCUIT.
WHERE ARE YOUR CITATIONS FOR THIS?
Citations to the experiments measuring that the electric field inside a superconductor are zero even with an externally applied electric field would be good.

HOW THIS IS POSSIBLE IS WHAT HAS TO BE EXPLAINED WHEN MODELLING A SUPERCONDUCTOR. AND THIS HAS NEVER BEEN EXPLAINED.
WHERE IS YOUR CITATION FOR THIS?
For example what textbook states that this has never been explained?
 
That may be. You, by contrast, never get the correct answer.
Funny that you should claim that you see a splinter in my eye while not being able to even look past the colossal wooden-beam in your own eye.
As always, everything you post contains basic conceptual errors. I'm very bored with conversing with you,
Then why do you not stop? Do you like to be bored?

I, in contrast, converse back because I find it absolutely astonishing and incredible that you can claim any physics-knowledge while it is apparent that it is impossible that you even understand the most elementary aspects of physics and mathematics which have already been known more than 150 years ago.

What fascinates me is how you are able to espouse incorrect physics so fluently and with such self-confidence. At first I found it hilarious that you intimated that you are teaching physics at university level. I hoped that you were kidding: However, after contemplating the development of physics since 1927, I realised that all of us who studied physics after that date have been swindled and hoodwinked: This also included me: My eyes only opened after my discovery of superconduction at room temperature.

It is thus probably not really fair of me to become aggravated when you espouse incorrect dogma and when you refuse point blank to accept even the possibility that most of the theoretical physics, developed during the past 100 years, has been wrongly interpreted and that, in many cases, derivations have been made which simply violate well known elementary physics-facts as well as elementary calculus.

Our generation of physicists have all been victims of the Copenhagen Voodoo. You are just a typical example of what brainwashing can achieve. I must thus rather pity you for being so blind to reality. I realise that it does take courage to consider an alternative to what you have been fed with, and regurgitated, for many-many years. Unfortunately you do not have that courage: However, this does not excuse your lack of logic when deriving solutions from Maxwell’s equations. The experiments on which these equations are based have been very clear long before Maxwell derived his differential equations, and any solution of these equations, which cannot be commensurate with these experiments, must be wrong: Let us now consider the rest of your inane comments:
so I'll just take your first point: "You do not realise that if you have free charge-carriers within a material which can be accelerated, an applied electric field can never be cancelled within such a material while a current is flowing. This is primary school physics."

You have that wrong (of course). It is the presence of free charge carriers that allows applied E-fields to be cancelled.
ONLY under static conditions is this statement of yours correct. It is, however, impossible for free charges to cancel any electric-field while they are carrying a current through a material. What you are clearly ignorant of is that electrodynamics demands that the cancellation of an electric field require that ALL free charges within the material must re-arrange at mechanical barriers (usually surfaces or interfaces of the material) in order to become static charges; and only in this way can they generate a polarisation field which, only under these static conditions, cancels an electric-field within the material: This is simple, simple electrostatics which should have been taught to you in primary school. If some of the free charges within a material are MOVING, there must be and will be, according to the laws of electrodynamics, an electric field present.
The presence of additional (steady) currents doesn't change that.
Oh my! Oh my! Dead wrong, AGAIN!!
For instance, suppose the free charge-carriers have arranged themselves so as to cancel an applied E-field, and then in addition one adds a current. If the resistance in the material is zero (as in a superconductor), the current will be constant and the E-field remains zero (although of course the B-field is not).
What has the “resistance” of the material got to do with the cancellation of an electric-field within the material? Absolutely NOTHING! Whether the charge-carriers experience “resistance” when they move into stationary positions in order to cancel an applied electric field, or whether they experience “no resistance” when moving into static positions to cancel the same electric-field, makes no difference at all. After the free charge-carriers have statically arranged to cancel an applied electric-field, it is impossible for any kind of current carried by free charges to flow while maintaining this cancellation of the electric-field. To repeat: When a current is conveyed by free charge-carriers, you have non-stationary free charges, so that an electric-field can then NOT be CANCELLED AT ALL; whether the carriers find a resistance to their movement or no resistance at all does not matter and plays no role in this regard whatsoever.
That follows immediately from Maxwell's equations.
Just as in your previous posts, this is another example of your uncanny “ability” to “derive” a “solution” from Maxwell’s equations which is nothing else than pure unadulterated physics-claptrap. This one is THE REAL WHOPPER which has been surfacing in different formats within your posts, and which compellingly proves that you do not even understand primary school physics and mathematics!

I am thus going to call your bluff: I challenge you to give your “derivation” from Maxwell’s equations proving how and why free charge-carriers, while conveying a current from one contact to another, can cancel an applied, conservative electric field within a material between the contacts; just because, as you claim, these charge-carriers supposedly do not experience resistance to their motion. I will then point out to you where your incompetence in elementary physics and elementary mathematics are; and hopefully in the process save your present and future students from being ignoramuses.

Although I am not as naïve as Reality Check, who thinks an argument is only valid if you can quote it verbatim (in words and equations) from a text book (most probably because he cannot think for himself), I will take the liberty to refer you to the “Feynman Lectures on Physics”, vol. II, section 5 where Feynman discusses in sections 5-2 and 5-3 the equilibrium of electric charges within an electric field. If after reading this, you still believe the claptrap that you have spouted in your previous post, and which I have quoted just above, then PLEASE get out of physics and do something really useful for human society: What about washing dishes, sweeping the streets, whatever!

Or if you still persist with your illogical physics-claptrap, then allow me to collect money for the following epitaph on your grave when you die: “Here lies “your-real-name” who taught physics: He argued that, after free charges have arranged themselves within a material to cancel an electric-field within such a material, the injection of charges to generate a steady-current through the same material, still allow the original cancellation of the electric field when the resistivity of the material is zero.”

Future generations of REAL physicists who pass by your grave will then have a LOL and will begin to understand why modern physics developed into Voodoo during the 20th century. If I had time, I would have liked to write a book on all the silly arguments you have posted on this thread. I already have a cover for the book: Your avatar; and a title: The Folly of Solly Invictus. Hopefully I will find the time to do this in the future. It must be important for people to realise how badly a physicist (if you are one?) can misunderstand physics.
It's mildly interesting, if not surprising, that your near-absolute wrongness in physics extends to your view of this thread and its participants. Nearly all of the exchanges we've had here began with false statements you've made about physics, us trying to explain to you why they're false, and you not getting it. That happened over and over and over and over. After all that, we've formed a pretty solid opinion of you and your abilities in physics - and it's hard to think of anything further from "prejudgement".
I made one serious mistake which I have corrected. You have consistently made far, far bigger mistakes; so have those who supported your misguided illogical reasoning on this thread: But all of you refuse point blank to admit when you have made a mistake, or even that you could be wrong: Except in one case, when Ziggurat made a not too important slip-of-the-lip involving the Hall effect. But since then zilch! After I pointed out to Ziggurat that his argument on superconducting magnets is nothing else than poppycock since he ignored displacement currents, he has consistently tried to worm himself out of this embarrassment, instead of just honestly admitting that he was wrong.

It seems that you all reason that physics must be determined by majority vote and not by experiment and logic: When the majority is hell-bent on defending accepted dogma, even though it is crystal clear from elementary physics that this dogma is nothing else but Voodoo, you insist on arguing that the majority must be right. It is of course any person’s innate right to make a fool of him/herself: It is thus your free choice, and also of the other participants on this thread, who like you, do not understand elementary physics already established more than 150 years ago, to live in cloud-cuckoo land; but do not insult me for refusing to do the same.
Scientific peer review, like all other human systems, is far from perfect. But if the papers you had rejected were anything like the quack nonsense you've been telling us here, it worked quite perfectly in your case.
If it is far from perfect, then why exacerbate it to ensure that it must become totally corrupt as it is at present? NO expert with self-respect, integrity and repute will hide behind anonymity. Thus, within the established fields of physics, the peer reviewers must of necessity, with very few exceptions, be chosen amongst quacks that protect one another; no matter what the real facts are.

I am looking forward to your “solution” of Maxwell’s equations, which supposedly proves “that free charge-carriers conveying a current “without resistivity” can simultaneously cancel an applied electric-field while they convey this current”. You do not have to do it in detail: You can just summarise it by stating from which point you start your so-called “solution”, and which of Maxwell’s equations you use to reach the conclusion “that an applied, conservative electric-field can be cancelled within a material that has no resistance when free charge-carriers convey a current from an injection contact to a target contact through this material”.
 
What fascinates me is how you are able to espouse incorrect physics so fluently and with such self-confidence. At first I found it hilarious that you intimated that you are teaching physics at university level. I hoped that you were kidding: However, after contemplating the development of physics since 1927, I realised that all of us who studied physics after that date have been swindled and hoodwinked: This also included me: My eyes only opened after my discovery of superconduction at room temperature.

Because if there's one thing post-1927 physics is known for, it's a failure to produce any working results. Why, the absolute derth of technological progress since 1927 is pretty much proof of how physics has become a religion.

Or possibly, you simply no longer understand post-1927 physics. Quite a quandry we have here. How to tell the difference? Hmmm....

But I'm being unfair. You don't understand pre-1927 physics anymore either. Which is why you couldn't figure out that your own ideas violated energy conservation, even though it was trivially obvious to everyone else.

It is thus probably not really fair of me to become aggravated when you espouse incorrect dogma and when you refuse point blank to accept even the possibility that most of the theoretical physics, developed during the past 100 years, has been wrongly interpreted and that, in many cases, derivations have been made which simply violate well known elementary physics-facts as well as elementary calculus.

You mean stuff like energy conservation?

Oh wait, no, that was you.

I made one serious mistake which I have corrected.

You've made many, many, many serious mistakes.

After I pointed out to Ziggurat that his argument on superconducting magnets is nothing else than poppycock since he ignored displacement currents

Your claim was complete nonsense. Under the circumstances in question, there IS no displacement current, since the voltage is constant. You tried grabbing onto the nearest idea that might prove me wrong, and didn't actually care to figure out if it made sense. But it doesn't. You only believe it's right because you're convinced I must be wrong, and can't think of any other reason why I might be. If you come up with a new idea for why I'm wrong, you'll drop your displacement current explanation and jump to whatever is next, with the same lack of introspection that has marked every shift in your position.

It is of course any person’s innate right to make a fool of him/herself

Oh, the irony.
 
I am looking forward to your “solution” of Maxwell’s equations, which supposedly proves “that free charge-carriers conveying a current “without resistivity” can simultaneously cancel an applied electric-field while they convey this current”. You do not have to do it in detail: You can just summarise it by stating from which point you start your so-called “solution”, and which of Maxwell’s equations you use to reach the conclusion “that an applied, conservative electric-field can be cancelled within a material that has no resistance when free charge-carriers convey a current from an injection contact to a target contact through this material”.

Well, um.

start with the hypothesis that we have a slab of material of thickness b in which the current is nonzero and E is zero. For example,

\vec{J} = a \hat{y} from z=0 to z=b, \vec{J} = 0 otherwise.
\vec{E} = 0 from z=0 to z=b, and \vec{E} = c \hat{z} otherwise.

Then, um, plug this into Maxwell's Equations. Do you find any contradictions? No. You find (from Gauss's Law) sheets of excess charge at the two surfaces, that's what "cancels" the external E field.
 
Well, um.
Welcome back Ben. I have been missing your chronically wrong insets after, at first, you brilliantly pointed out where I have made a mistake in my initial analysis of the so-called AC-Josephson effect.
start with the hypothesis that we have a slab of material of thickness b in which the current is nonzero and E is zero.
You cannot start off with what you have to prove. I have asked that you must prove that a current, consisting of free charge-carriers, can flow from an injection contact to a target contact while also cancelling the applied electric field between the contacts, so that E must be zero. Assuming as your starting hypothesis that the field is zero is thus nonsensical.
\vec{J} = a \hat{y} from z=0 to z=b, \vec{J} = 0 otherwise.
\vec{E} = 0 from z=0 to z=b, and \vec{E} = c \hat{z} otherwise.

Then, um, plug this into Maxwell's Equations. Do you find any contradictions? No.
If a physically impossible assumption is used as a starting hypothesis, and plugged into Maxwell's equations, and Ben finds "no contradictions", it does not prove that the assumption is physically possible. The only way TO PROVE THAT IT IS, is to solve Maxwell's equations after having plugged in this assumption, AND SOLVE THEM SUBJECT TO THE ACTUAL PREVAILING BOUNDARY CONDITIONS: You will then find contradictions.
You find (from Gauss's Law) sheets of excess charge at the two surfaces, that's what "cancels" the external E field.
Even if such "sheets" do form from the pool of free-charges within the material, the densities of opposite charges within these sheets can NEVER accumulate to a high-enough level so that they can actually cancel an applied electric-field between them, while at the same time concomitant free charges are conveying a current from one contact to the other contact: i.e. from one contact, through its charged-layer, through the bulk, through the other charged layer, into the target contact. If you do your calculation correctly this is the result you will find. They only cancel the applied electric-field when there is no current-flow at all.

So sorry Ben: You are wrong; yet AGAIN!
 
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