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Superconductivity at room temperature??

So one can only appeal to a person's authority if you believe that he never made a mistake?

Appeals to authority are logical fallacies regardless. But it makes the fallacy more obvious.

Feynman has always been one of my heroes since he is probably the best teacher of physics we ever had. It is thus very sad that my discovery of superconduction at room temperature led me to discover that his theory of QED is deeply flawed; and that he was wrong to support the BCS model and the conventional explanation for Josephson Junctions. He was also wrong to have supported the derivation by Aharanov and Bohm.

Either that, or you're wrong.

I know which way I'd bet.

This, however, has not diminished my admiration for the man at all. A physicist's research need not to be correct for all eternity to have been an excellent scientist.

Then the objections you cite need not be correct either, and hence the fallacy of your appeals to authority should have been obvious even to you.

What is further interesting about Feynman is that, although building QED on Bohr’s principle of complementarity and Born’s probability interpretation, he has had all along a healthy suspicion that the Copenhagen interpretation is wrong.

Your disagreements with standard quantum mechanics go far beyond the Copenhagen interpretation to the very contents of the theory itself.

This was explicitly pointed in an interview with “American Spectator” by Carver Mead, who studied under Feynman. When asked why Feynman proceeded within this paradigm while so strongly suspecting that it must be wrong, Carver Mead responded: “have you seen what they did to Einstein?” Feynman knew he was brilliant and should be able to win the Nobel Prize: He also knew that if he tried to do so outside the accepted dogma, he will more likely end up on the trash heap than be accorded the honours that he deserved.

Yeah, sure, because that's where Einstein is now: in the trash heap. Why, physicists regularly curse his name.

This is how physics unfortunately operates: If you want to argue otherwise, like Reality Check does, you are incredibly naive about physics and the people who control physics.

Perhaps you mean these folks:
 
You're wrong. The Schrodinger equation is not an equation for the (classical) position-vs.-time of the electron.
I have not said so anywhere: But only that when the wave moves, its centre-of-mass is an equation for the (classical) position-vs,-time of the electron. I thought you knew about Ehrenfest’s theorem? Obviously you do not!
It's a wave equation
Correct, it is a harmonic wave equation with complex amplitudes; which is most probably, an approximation of the real equation that should be used for a solitary electron: This is so since the rest mass of an electron is used as an input in Schroedinger's equation while this parameter must be the energy-solution of a wave equation for a free solitary electron. Schroedinger's equation thus seems to be a perturbation of another equation which is required to model a single electron when it is stationary within its own inertial reference frame; as it must be according to Galileo’s principle of inertia: The latter incontroverible law that must be valid for all bodies with mass (and thus also for an electron) requires that the centre-of-mass of this stationary wave (interpred incorrectly by Copenhagen as the "most probable position of the electron") must have simultaneous values for both position and momentum without any uncertainties involved.
for the evolution of the electron wavefunction.
I know that this is what is argued in the mainstream literature, but it is probably nonsense. According to Schroedinger’s equation there is NO “evolution” unless the boundary conditions change. When the boundary conditions do not change, the wave intensity does not change: So what is evolving? Is “no change” evolution? I do not think so.
Given Schrodinger's Equation---or, more correctly, given the Born interpretation---you can derive Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle.
Given any harmonic wave amplitude you can derive the sizes (delta)x and (delta)k of the wave in real and reciprocal space: These sizes have absolutely NOTHING to do with uncertainties in position and momentum of the centre-of-mass of an electron-“particle” whatsoever: No matter what Max Born has postulated.

Indeed this is how I always teach it to my students. We learn Schrodinger and Born first. Then we look at some simple wavefunctions and calculate their position- and momentum-space uncertainties.
Good start! But based on Born’s wrong interpretation
Out pops delta-x delta-p ~ hbar.
Bad beginning: You have not been a good teacher if you did not teach your students that (delta)x*(delta)p=g(hbar) where the value g is determined by the shape and energy of the wave. The value of g can be far larger than approximately unity
With some more care you can find a wavefunction for which delta-x delta-p = hbar/2 and show that this is the strict lower bound.
Yes this is the Gaussian (“zero-point") wave for which g=1/2; and which plays a major role in the low-temperature superconductors; and which has misled the “experts” to believe that the flux quantum h/(2e) requires doubly-charged charge-carriers; while in actual reality the flux quantum is given by (2g)/e.
Then we say "this lower bound is called Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle, and it's useful to remember by itself."
Except that it HAS NOTHING to do with any “uncertainties” in the position and momentum of a “particle”.
 
The 3 points were addressed by sol invictus. But
1) this is the well known fact that a superconductior has no resistence.
Ohm’s law is used to define that a superconductor has zero resistance, it does not explain why it has zero resistance. Sol, has argued time and again that Ohm’s law explains why a superconductor has zero voltage while a current is flowing: It does not explain this.
2) the kinetric energy comes from whatever source was used to create the current.
If you cannot define what you mean with “whatever source” and how this “whatever source” generates this kinetic energy, you obviously do not have a clue where the kinetic energy comes from.
3) not an issue since everyone (including me now) agreed with you from the start. The issue was you thinking that this applied to the phase of a scalar field (or if you like a complex field).
The issue is more complex than that since a phase function (say S) can have more than a single value at a point and is therefore not continuous; and therefore not differentiable. Thus to state that you can take its gradient so that you can obtain a loop integral of this gradient is mathematical claptrap. And this mathematical claptrap has unfortunately found its way into physics: For example, Feynman’s paths over histories, The Aharanov Bohm derivation, the derivation of the superconducting flux quantum; etc.
I did not distort what you said:
Oh yes you did since you implied that ONLY Dirac’s equation can be relativistically invariant.
It is a fact that Dirac's equation is totally commensurate with special relativity. You have just stated this (but I probably distorted what you said by quoting it :rolleyes:).
What I claimed is that although it leads by a round about manner to matrices which can be equated to spin, it is not the full story. Any single “particle” equation which can only be interpreted by arguing that it is really a multi-“particle” equation, and not just “multi-“ but “infinite-particle” equation is clearly nonsense.
Dirac's equation
[*]is relativistically invariant. [*]is the correct equation to use for an electron because it describes a spin 1/2 particle.
This is obtained by means of a special algebra called Clifford algebra and this algebra might not be commensurate with reality.
So why should Dirac's equation's not be used for an electron?
Because it is a single-“particle” equation that must be interpreted as an “infinite-particle” equation. This is fudging the mathematics to fit what you want the physics to be: This is not doing physics at all.
It is ignorant in the extreme to just plug in relativistic mass into Schroedinger's equation and imagine that you have a relativistically invariant equation.
Where did I say that I “plug in” relativistic mass. All I said is that the energy of a moving electron must be its relativistic mass, and that the correct relativistically invariant wave equation must give the relativistic mass of a moving electron as its energy. What is “ignorant” about that?
Where is your length contraction?
There is no length contraction since, as Einstein has postulated, there is no ether which requires such a contraction.
Where is your time dilation?
Assume you have a solitary stationary electron wave with a Gaussian shape and an average length (delta)x=(x(nose)-x(tail)), and that you observe this wave within another inertial reference frame; so that the wave is moving past you along the x-axis. Firstly the time in the nose of the wave will now trail the time in the tail of the wave: In fact, the time will now be a function of position along the length of the wave so that the nose is in the future of the tail. Furthermore, the length of the wave DOES NOT CONTRACT: In fact, it becomes LONGER. If you are able to handle the equations of the Lorentz transformation you can easily verify this for yourself. Within the inertial reference frame in which the wave is stationary, it is easy to verify that the phase angle is the same at any position along the length of the wave: However, when the wave moves past you, it becomes longer and since the time is now a function of position along its length, the phase angle also changes linearly with position. Thus, the electron wave becomes a coherent unidirectional wave which can diffract. Only NOW does the de Broglie wavelength become relevant. One cannot derive this from Dirac’s equation.
You need to prove (like Dirac did) that your equation is relativistically invariant. The proper way to do this is to show that it is invariant under Lorentz transformations.
I have just now applied the Lorentz-transformation and derived a result which Dirac’s equation cannot give: Therefore even though you can argue that mathematically it is Lorentz invariant, this means nothing, since this equation cannot explain where the de Broglie wavelength comes from.
 
the centre-of-mass of this stationary wave (interpred incorrectly by Copenhagen as the "most probable position of the electron") must have simultaneous values for both position and momentum without any uncertainties involved.

The uncertaintly principle doesn't refer to the "center of mass" of the wavefunction. It refers to the position observable, i.e. the result of doing an actual position measurement, and the momentum observable, i.e. the result of doing an actual momentum measurement. Neither of these measurements will tell you where the "center of mass" is.

The "center of mass" of a wavefunction corresponds to <x>, the *ensemble* average of many measuremens of x. The center of momentum is <p>. The only thing that you've said that is correct is that there is no uncertainty principle applying to the averages: <x><p> = 0 is fine and no one has ever said otherwise.

Have you ever seen someone claim that there was a quantum uncertainty <x><p> >= hbar/2 ? Of course you haven't. If you have, please give a citation.

As Zig said when he explained this to you a few posts ago:

Way to miss the point, johan.

Please learn what the actual uncertainty principle says. You can find Zig's derivation in this thread, you can find a proof and discussion in any quantum mechanics textbook. It's talking about the width of a distribution of measurements. Not the mean. Not the standard error on the mean.

It's really impossible that someone with your background could have missed this. I assume you learned it correctly once, long ago, then twisted it around in your head when you became (a) desperate to prove everything wrong and (b) too badly out-of-practice to check your own work.
 
1627

Real problem there: What does this say about your published papers?

You cannot have it both ways: either the peer review process works in which case your papers are grain, or it does not in which case it is likely that some of your papers are chaff.

But maybe you have been publishing dogma all of these years :rolleyes:!

I have decided to jump to this post after I have read your intermediate long rambling posts above. The reason is that your arguments in the latter posts are mostly repetitions of aspects I have already treated in detail on this forum and the rest was the type of garbage one expects from a person who thinks he knows while not really knowing. You have learned how to look up standard dogma, to write a paper under supervision, and even got one citation; but unfortunately you have not learned to think for yourself. Even so, you believe that you can fight in the same league that I am in. Even if you live another 10 lives you will never be able to do so.

I do not mind if it is your opinion that I am wrong: This is your right. What I do mind is that a person with your limited ability in physics can claim that your authority is so impeccable that you can state without any proof or logic reasoning from your side that I must be a crackpot. This is why I chose to answer this present post of yours in order to set down information about myself which you think you know without knowing, as well as the corruption that anonymous peer reviewing has caused and is still causing in physics; and will cause as long as the system is not drastically revised.

I will not go back to my birth in 1942, but start off in 1958, when, while in grade 11, I decided to also write grade 12 in the same year; which I passed with four distinctions. The next year I enrolled at the University of Pretoria to do a BSc starting with Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Applied Mathematics. I aimed to do all four subjects until I completed the BSc. In the second year I dropped Chemistry since the practical skills they taught us would have been more appropriate in the 19th Century, and rather added Mathematical Statistics. During my third year, I was approached by the Physics Department and offered a job to help with the teaching of first year students. I accepted since I had an irresponsible older brother who spent twice as long at university than he should have had to obtain his degree. I wanted my parents rather to start saving their money for their old age. I could not teach while also doing four subjects, and I thus completed my BSc (cum laude) in Physics and Mathematics. After this I proceeded to do my MSc: The major portion of the work was in Theoretical Physics; followed by scription on experimental physics based on the magnetic properties of thin metal layers: Which I also obtained cum laude.

During my studies I did not like the way in which tensors were presented to us, and decided to develop my own notes. After writing an examination, our tutor Prof. J H van der Merwe gave me 115% and asked me if I would allow him to use my notes in future. I was seeing myself as becoming a Theoretical Physicist; but God intervened by being offered a scholarship at the University of Virginia to do my doctorate in Materials Science. When I accepted this, the head of the Physics Department, Prof. Heinz Verleger was very upset since he wanted to offer me a lectureship (In the USA it is probably called a Junior Professor). But I left for Charlottesville, Virginia and completed my degree under Profs. Heinz and Doris Wilsdorf. But I also saw to it all along that I did not neglect my reading within the field of Theoretical Physics. Already then I noticed that many physicists are complaining that they have problems to publish their manuscripts which are at variance with accepted dogma; and that if you persist in trying to do so, this can lead to derision and an end in obtaining funding.

I wanted to stay longer in the USA, but a new university in Port Elizabeth in South Africa pleaded with me to run their physics department during 1967. Unfortunately they succeeded to persuade me to return. The corruption I found there was too much for me to tolerate. At that stage the whole country was under the effective control of a secret organization having secret members called the “Broederbond”. During the 1930’s this organisation became infiltrated by Nazi’s and it is under their control that the Nationalist Party gained control in 1948 and subsequently enacted the strict laws of Apartheid. In fact, they were hoping that on my return to South Africa, I would join them and they had a whole career planned for me. The principal of the University of Port Elizabeth was Prof. Ernst Marais who was on the executive of the Broederbond. But when working there I found so much corruption that I could not even plan to become part of it. After resigning I pointed out this corruption in the press; and was informed through the grapevine that I do not have a future in South Africa anymore. I thus planned to look for a position overseas.

At that stage De Beers Industrial Diamond Division decided they need a Materials Scientist and a friend of mine informed them that I was at that stage the only person in South Africa who had a degree within that discipline. They offered me a position and I started to do research on the manufacturing of industrial diamonds using high pressures and temperatures, and on the applications of these diamonds. In 1972 my MSc tutor in Theoretical Physics, Prof. J H van der Merwe became chairman of the physics department at the University of Pretoria; and asked me to join him. Since my research at De Beers was more in engineering, I decided to accept his offer which he made even though he knew that my appointment would not be favourably looked upon by the Broederbond.

When the director of De Beers Industrial Diamond Division, Dr. Henry Dyer, heard about it, he tried to convince me to stay; which I should have done; but since Prof. Jan van der Merwe had such a big impact on my education in Theoretical Physics I felt that I could not renege on my acceptance of his offer. Dr. Dyer then appointed me as a consultant. Except for the extra income, it had the undesired result that all the time I should have spent to try and generate mediocre papers so that I can get them past the editors and peer reviewers, was spent on top-quality classified research for De Beers. This did not worry me unduly since by that time I already had a healthy disrespect for the corrupt anonymous peer review system.

I should have known that I would pick up political problems at the University of Pretoria. After I became active within a political party in opposition to the Apartheid government, and became publicly well known in the press for my stance, the Broederbond had to find a reason to get rid of my “bad influence” on the students. They finally found a loophole and I was fired at the end of 1977. So now I had no work except for my consultancy with De Beers which was also coming to an end since my work for them had been too successful in answering what they wanted to know.

To make a long story short, De Beers at that time bought an Ion Implanter and installed it at the University of the Witwatersrand in Johannesburg. The reason for this was that studies at Harwell at that time showed that you can enlarge the size of a diamond by implanting carbon ions into it. It was too horrible to think that a person can buy a small diamond at a low price and grow it to be larger so that he could flog it at a much higher price. Prof. Friedel Sellschop at the University of the Witwatersrand fanned these fears in order to get an Ion Implanter installed at his Institute. I have never met another person in my life that is more adept than Friedel Sellschop to obtain funding from Industry. Sadly he has passed away already.

Dr Dyer then offered me a contract until 1982 to study ion implantation into diamond since they wanted somebody at the University who will not just produce tons and tons of mediocre publications, but who will safeguard their interests. Thus I started on this problem in 1978. I soon found out that the threat to the diamond market had been greatly exaggerated by Friedel: Bless his soul, since if he had not, I would have had no income. Ion implanters were built to dope silicon in order to decrease the size of electronic chips. Thus after finding no threat from carbon ion implantation, I had some time left to play around.

That natural diamonds have p-type conduction owing to boron acceptors have been identified already in the 1950’s. The Hope Diamond is such a diamond. But there was no n-type diamond. However, I did note during my studies on carbon-ion implantation that I could generate conductive regions which respond from Seebeck measurements like n-type conduction. For the fun I masked out a base area using a thin wire, and treated the exposed areas to carbon ion treatment. If the latter areas turned out to really act n-type, the structure should switch like an n-p-n type bipolar transistor. And it did give beautiful transistor curves. Since at that stage, owing to the price of large diamonds, it would have been silly to even contemplate developing diamond electronics, De Beers allowed me to publish this result in Applied Physics Letters. And since this result did not threaten existing dogma in Solid State Electronics, it did not present much of a problem to publish it.

In the mean time the University of the Witwatersrand appointed me to their staff and I started to help with lectures within the Physics Department of the Witwatersrand. There was no problem with this since, fortunately, the University of the Witwatersrand was well known for their stance against apartheid. The Broederbond hated them and this even led to arrests of their students, some of whom died in detention, banning of some of their teachers, and a cold blooded murder of a professor when he was shot dead from a passing car while he entered his residence.

At the end of my contract with De Beers I would have seamlessly passed into academia. But God had other plans for me. Towards the end of 1982, the Japanese repeated experiments first claimed by the Russians (and of course poo-pooed by the equivalents of Sol Invictus, Ben m, and Ziggurat in the West) that showed that diamond layers can be grown chemically by plasma-assisted chemical vapour deposition. It is interesting that Prof. John Angus at Case Western University for years claimed that this must be possible but was of course blocked from widely publishing his ideas. It even happened that after he gave a lecture at a conference, the chairman of the session stood up and said that he is not going to allow questions since the presentation is clearly based on nonsense. Sounds like the mentality of Sol, Ben and Ziggurat, does it not?

So diamond electronics was on! And since I was the very first to have shown that bipolar transistor action is possible in diamond, I was suddenly internationally famous. De Beers decided not to terminate my contract but to keep on sponsoring me in order to keep them informed of developments. Thus my contract was renewed every year in a year-on-year basis until 2002. I could not have asked for better. I was suddenly positioned to publish within a brand new discipline within which there was not yet dogmatic knowledge that has to be protected by the “experts” at all cost. I could publish excellent manuscripts for the first time in my life and I used this opportunity to the fullest extent. But of course, this ideal situation could not last since our anonymous peer review process forbids this possibility.

Soon scientists within this new field were scurrying to obtain control of the field. Unhealthy alliances were arranged and back-stabbing became the order of the day. In the field of ion implantation into diamond, Prof. Rafael Kalish at the Technion in Israel was determined to rule the roost: And he eventually succeeded. He had facilities I could only drool to have, but I could not accept any of his invitations since I was not a “normal” academic even though I taught classes in Electrodynamics and Quantum Mechanics at the University, and supervised MSc and PhD students (mostly free of charge since my income came from my De Beers grant).

I was not in a position to form part of an academic research group, since this would dilute my attention to the needs of De Beers. I could only publish if the patent attorney’s of De Beers allowed me to publish; or else I would probably have had at least three times the number of publications I now have. This also mandated that most of my publications had to be solo publications. Soon I was branded as not being a “team player”, and resentment started to build up at the University of the Witwatersrand as well as other research institutes like the Technion.

It was absolutely astonishing to see how quickly this new field also became dogma ridden as the scientists within the field started to protect their own work instead of allowing new novel ideas to be published. If I have to go into detail, this thread will become too long. Suffice to say that by the middle of the 1990’s most referees would rather protect accepted dogma than allow fresh ideas to be published. I furthermore generated results which contradicted the cherished model that was developed by the Technion group to explain the generation of damage in diamond during ion implantation. So towards the year 2000 many excellent manuscripts written by me started to become routinely rejected.

Initially the main objective was to dope diamond n-type. The obvious candidate was phosphorous. It is, however, a large atom which created an enormous amount of damage when being ion implanted into diamond. Although, I succeeded to dope diamond with phosphorus, I could not get the residual damage low enough to have the quality that required. In 1996, the Japanese succeeded to grow in phosphorus atoms and this led to better quality n-type diamond.

One application that was foreseen for n-type diamond was to generate a cold cathode from which copious amounts of electrons can be extracted into a vacuum at room temperature. Experimental results indicated that electrons within the conduction band of diamond will be at a higher energy than the vacuum level energy outside. From this it was deduced that such electrons can then be easily extracted by means of an anode to have electrons within a vacuum. After the Japanese obtained good quality n-type diamond, attempts were made to extract these electrons, but with no success. So it was concluded that the previous results did not prove that the electrons were at a higher energy.

An alternative model was developed which is at present accepted as the correct dogma. But I realised that the reason might be different, since when you have electrons at a higher energy at one side of an interface than on the other side, they will flow out to form a dipole layer across the surface which eventually prevents further electrons from leaving; and when you then try and extract electrons this dipole layer increases in order to also cancel the applied electric-field until dielectric breakdown occurred. I realised that if you can increase the density of donors beneath the surface to a very high value, one should be able to extract electrons right up to the anode without causing dielectric breakdown, whence an electron current should start flowing from the diamond surface into the anode. But, it is not possible to increase phosphorus doping to reach such a high density.

I thus started to look for other dopants and found that I could generate n-type diamond by oxygen-ion implantation and low temperature annealing. I still had enough clout to get is past the referees, which is quite amazing since it has already became fairly well-established dogma that oxygen cannot form donors in diamond. But once they realised that this slipped through their net, the attacks became vicious even from public platforms. It is still the dogma that I could not have generated n-type diamond.

Years later I received a manuscript written by Chinese researchers in Beijing in which they repeated and expanded on my results for oxygen doping thus rubbishing all the inane criticism which I had to endure. I recommended publishing, but when I wanted to quote this publication a year later, I had to learn that it was not published since the second referee rejected it. Guess who this second referee was? A person who studied at the Technion: It was just too horrible for them to allow a publication to go through which proves that they have been wrong all along! The sad part is that a PhD student in China, who worked on this, was nominated for a National Prize, which he deserved but could not get since the referees have “objectively” rejected his work. To show you how strong this mafia is: This work has now been blocked from being published in Western Journals for 7 years.

Next I discovered how to have a very high oxygen-doping level below the surface of a diamond substrate and could thus extract electrons into an anode so that s current flowed. But the extraction of the electrons is caused by the electrons cancelling the applied electric field and if you have enough donors below the surface they keep on injecting electrons within the electron phase between the diamond and the anode until the field becomes zero, even when a current keeps on flowing. This is first really incontrovertible proof that a current is flowing without an electric-field being present: Thus it is the first incontrovertible proof that superconduction is occurring at room temperature.

Now I can answer you remarks above: So there is no real problem with my published papers since I was lucky to strike a new field before dogma started to rule it. At the moment I will not be able to get anything published anymore unless I pander to the accepted dogma in this 20 year old field; which I refuse to do since most of it is wrong. When I discovered superconduction I suddenly had to publish in a field within which the BCS dogma has so solidified that it stinks to high heaven. The results are clear: Even though I have been respected as a scientist of international repute, my publications on superconduction have all been blocked simply because they are at variance with accepted dogma. So, as I have repeatedly pointed out the anonymous peer review process does not, and can never work. It leads to stagnation. I have only been lucky to have been in a new field during the 1980’s and 1990’s.

So please do me a favour: Stop trying to be a wisecrack and arguing about matters you know nothing about. You are just displaying your enormous ignorance and making a colossal crater of yourself.
 
Okay, let's break this down for a person who is not an expert in physics: What's the "k" the "x" and the "g" mean, and what does this invalidation mean?
To answer these questions we must first go to your second question:
What's a harmonic electron wave
.To talk a bout a harmonic wave, we must first know what harmonic motion is.

Harmonic motion: The best known example is the swinging of a pendulum through a not too large angle; as you typically find in grandfather clocks. When the pendulum does not swing, it hangs downwards since it is in equilibrium within the gravitational field; which we can call its zero position. When the pendulum swings, it repeatedly swings through this equilibrium (zero) position to reach a distance A where it momentarily stops and then swings back through the equilibrium position to a position –A where it again stops momentarily and returns through equilibrium to complete a single cycle; which it then repeats; etc., etc., etc. There is obviously a frequency (nu) to this motion which is the number of single cycles per unit time. When this repetitive motion can be mathematically described by a sinus-function or a cosine function, it is called harmonic motion.

Such motion can in an abstract, but more useful manner, be viewed as a spoke of length A rotating around a point. The projection of this spoke along an axis (usually chosen as the y-axis) going through the centre point then gives the harmonic to and fro motion between A and –A. Every time the radial-spoke has rotated around the circle, which its end point maps out, is a single cycle; and since the angle it moves through is 2*pi the angular frequency (omega)=(2*pi)*(nu) is usually used for harmonic motion instead of (nu). It is thus like a clock with one arm which completes cycles with an angular frequency (omega). The distance y of the harmonic motion can thus be written in mathematical format as:

y=A sin[(omega)*t]

In this equation it is assumed that the angle of rotation around the central point started off at zero when t=0. However, the harmonic motion need not have started off at zero angle but could have started off at an initial angle (theta) so that one can write that:

y=Asin[(omega)t+(theta)]

The whole angle (omega)t+(theta) is the phase angle of the harmonic motion at any instant t; but in many cases only (theta) is called the phase angle. We will call it the “time-independent” phase angle.

A wave is a field (which is a region in space) where at every point within the wave you have a disturbance. A harmonic wave is a wave where the disturbance at a point (and thus at all points within the wave) is harmonic. Now first consider the simplest of all waves: i.e. a wave which has a single frequency (omega) that is exactly the same at all points within the wave. Thus (omega)*t is exactly the same for the harmonic motion at all the points within the wave. But this is not necessarily the case for the time-independent phase angle (theta): This angle can be different at different positions.

Let us first consider a one dimensional wave with a single frequency which moves along a single direction x. It is called a running wave; and for such a wave to be a running wave, the time-independent angle (theta) must change linearly with distance x; i.e. (theta)=k*x, where k is proportional to the momentum p of such a running wave. Furthermore, between two consecutive crests (or two consecutive troughs, or any two consecutive points which vibrate identically in phase) this angle changes by 2*pi. The distance between two such points is the wavelength (lambda) of the wave. Thus, from (delta)(theta)=k*(lambda) one obtains that k=(2*pi)/(lambda).

Furthermore, when you take the one-dimensional gradient (derivative with x) of (theta) you obtain that (d/dx)(theta)=k. If you are not very clever, you might at this point want to say: But should this gradient not be periodic? No, it is not the time-independent phase angle that is periodic but the sinusoidal function of this angle PLUS the angle (omega)t that causes the periodicity.

Now consider a two-dimensional, coherent, harmonic wave: One can easily generate one by dropping a very small pebble into a dam with placid water. Circular harmonic, coherent wave fronts will then spread out from this point. At all points within the wave the harmonic frequency (omega) is exactly the same value. One now finds that the time-independent phase angle only changes along the radial directions r perpendicular to the circular wave fronts; so that along any radial direction r it can be written as (theta)=k*r. So if you calculate the “gradient” along the radial direction r you obtain, again obtain k; as in the one-dimensional case. BUT along the circular directions the phase angle does NOT change at all. So when taking the gradient along the circumference of such a circle you obtain ZERO. Thus a line integral around a circle of this gradient will still give you ZERO. There is no periodic change in the amplitude around a circle of a two-dimensional wave.

Now let us look at a Schroedinger wave: Such a wave has a “complex” number as its vibrating amplitude. Just as in the case of the waves above you also have a one-armed clock rotating with a frequency (omega) at every point: But the intensity of the movement is now not just the projection of the arm along one direction (chosen as the y-direction) but also along the x-direction. And when you add the squares of these projections you obtain the squared length of the rotating arm. Thus, whereas for a wave with a real-number wave-amplitude you can observe the harmonic motion within three-dimensional space, you CANNOT observe the harmonic motion of the Schroedinger wave within three-dimensional space. The energy for this harmonic motion only manifests OUTSIDE our three-dimensional space. But even so the Schroedinger wave is still a harmonic wave since you still have harmonic motion at each point within the wave, even though it is not occurring within our three-dimensional space.
Thus just as for a normal wave, any two dimensional Schroedinger wave can only have a change in its time-independent phase angle along the radial direction and not along a circle. There is, also in this case, no change in the time-independent phase angle (theta) along the periphery of a circle. But since the amplitude is a complex number, you do find that a second angle (THETA) appears as a factor exp[i(THETA)]; but this has NOTHING to do with an actual phase angle which can only change radially. The angle THETA is purely an angle that appears owing to the symmetry of the wave. It plays NO ROLE as long as the wave retains its circular symmetry. It can only play a role when you do something to break the wave’s circular symmetry.

What has happened is that this symmetry angle has been interpreted as an accrual phase angle, and used in this manner to generate the incorrect physics on which the BCS model and the Aharanov Bohm effect are based.
what's "p", and "hbar" mean, and how does this invalidate the interpretation of Heisenberg?
Now you know what k and x and the phase angle (theta) means when you have a coherent, harmonic running wave. The phase angle then always increases with x as kx in the direction in which the wave moves. If you do not have a coherent running wave, but a stationary wave, the phase angle (theta) does not change linearly with position but only flips through an angle pi at ever node of the wave. But this is not relevant at the moment.

What is relevant is that ONLY when you have a coherent, harmonic running wave is k proportional to the momentum of the wave. If the wave is a light-wave having the energy of a photon E=(hbar)*(omega), the momentum of the photon wave is (hbar)*k. (which is de Broglie’s relationship). Shroedinger’s differential equation only gives solutions for stationary waves when the boundary conditions do not change with time; and how these waves change when the boundary conditions change. It does not give a solution for a coherent running wave which can diffract within three-dimensional space. Since diffraction is observed, one must find a reason why a Schroedinger wave which does not have wave-fronts within three-dimensional space (but only outside three dimensional space) develops wave fronts within three-dimensional space that it also has thet p=(hbar)k. I have given the reason for this in a post above.

Then in closing: Waves do not have to be coherent running waves and can also consist of the superposition of waves having different wavelengths. There is then a spread (delta)k in the values of the k’s. Since the entity is still a wave, you also have a spread (delta)x in its size within three-dimensional space. For all these waves you then have that (delta)x*(delta)k=g where the value of g is determined by the shape of the wave and can never be less than ½. It has been incorrectly assumed that in this case one can write that you have an uncertainty in momentum (delta)p=(hbar)*[(delta)k] and that you therefore have an “uncertainty” in the momentum of an electron. This is nonsense since it violates Galileo’s principle of inertia and thus also Newton’s first law that defines mass.
 
You can't use Ohm's law to explain anything. That's not its purpose. Its purpose is to describe, not explain. And it works perfectly well to describe a superconductor.
THANK YOU! At last you admit that it cannot explain how an electric field is cancelled within a superconductor so that the charge-carriers move without being accelerated. BRAVO!
 
THANK YOU! At last you admit that it cannot explain how an electric field is cancelled within a superconductor so that the charge-carriers move without being accelerated. BRAVO!

Good thing I never did that, then. I used Maxwell's equations to do that. Soi, in fact, did you. You presented the obvious solution, but couldn't recognize it for what it was.
 
Well, no. In that case, <k2> = <k>2 =/= 0.
Correct: And therefore (delta)k=0. Thus k has a definite value. So what is your point? [/quote]But in general, <k2> =/= <k>2, so that even when <k> = 0, <k2> =/= 0.[/quote] So in this case k does not have a definite value: So what?
So the coherent running wave which you just appealed to (and which is an unnormalizable free-particle solution) is meaningless.
Correct! It is a totally meaningless solution.
So why the hell did you bring it up?
The solution you refer to is the solution of the Schroedinger equation which IS NOT a solution for a coherent running wave since this solution for V=0 has no wave-fronts that are moving coherently within three-dimensional space: As you must have for a coherent harmonic running wave which can diffract around objects within three-dimensional space.
That's meaningless, since 1) it applies to all solutions of the Schrodinger equation, free or not,
What you miss is that for bound solutions you obtain the difference in energy between the free energy (which is m(0)*c^2) and the bound solution which then has an energy m(b)*c^2 where m(b)<m(0). It cannot give a solution for a freely moving electron which has an energy m*c^2 where m>m(0).
Given that a stationary state can be formed from the linear superposition of momentum eigenstates,
NO! It forms from k-states and the resultant wave has nothing to do with a momentum that follows the de Broglie relationship.
How can a stationary state have a spread in position?
ALL waves have a spread in position since a wave is a field that fills a volume. It MUST have a spread in position to be a wave.
There's nothing intrinsically different between real-space and momentum-space representations.
There is NOT a momentum space at all; only an inverse k-space; and there is a hell of a difference between real-space and k-space (even if you insist to wrongly claim that the latter is a momentum space): They are reciprocals and are therefore intrinsically dfifferent.
"stationary" only requires that <p> = 0, not that <p2> = 0.
When you have a superposition of waves you always have that (delta)k>0: When such a wave is stationary, its group velocity is zero: This does not require that the spread in k-values is a spread in momentums.
No, I'm not. Rather, you are imagining a difference which doesn't exist. The sole difference between momentum and k is a change of units.
There is only a k-space which has NOTHING to do with the momentum of an electron; and can therefore not be a “momentum space”. Only for a runningg harmonic, coherent electron wave, with a single value for k, do you have that p=(hbar)*k. For all other electron waves this is NOT the case.
Take the harmonic oscillator energy eigenstates, for example. All of them have <p> = 0. None of them have <p2> = 0.
They are all stationary waves for which <k2>0
And because <p2> =/= 0, they have kinetic energy.
A stationary matter-wave wave CANNOT have kinetic energy within three-dimensional space EVER, since its intensity does not change harmonically at any point within three dimensional space.
How much kinetic energy? Well, just like classical harmonic oscillators, half their energy is kinetic (Virial theorem).
Except, that owing to the wave’s complex-number amplitude, there is no actual harmonic movement within our three-dimensional space to which you can apply the Virial theorem.
According to you, they shouldn't have any kinetic energy, since they have no momentum.
Their kinetic harmonic vibration does not occur within our three-dimensional space, since the intensity at any point within any stationary (time-independent) solution of the Schroedinger equation does NOT change harmonically with time at all.
So all our harmonic oscillator solutions have the energy wrong by a factor of 2.
Not in the case of a matter wave: The kinetic energy does not manifest within three-dimensional space since your intensity within three-dimensional space is NOT changing harmonically with time any point at all. No change in position with time=no kinetic energy.
But of course, they aren't. Plenty of experiments prove that.
Which experiments on matter waves prove this? Citations please!
 
Well, no. In that case, <k2> = <k>2 =/= 0.
Correct: And therefore (delta)k=0. Thus k has a definite value. So what is your point?
But in general, <k2> =/= <k>2, so that even when <k> = 0, <k2> =/= 0.
So in this case k does not have a definite value: So what?
So the coherent running wave which you just appealed to (and which is an unnormalizable free-particle solution) is meaningless.
Correct! It is a totally meaningless solution.
So why the hell did you bring it up?
The solution you refer to is the solution of the Schroedinger equation which IS NOT a solution for a coherent running wave since this solution for V=0 has no wave-fronts that are moving coherently within three-dimensional space: As you must have for a coherent harmonic running wave which can diffract around objects within three-dimensional space.
That's meaningless, since 1) it applies to all solutions of the Schrodinger equation, free or not,
What you miss is that for bound solutions you obtain the difference in energy between the free energy (which is m(0)*c^2) and the bound solution which then has an energy m(b)*c^2 where m(b)<m(0). It cannot give a solution for a freely moving electron which has an energy m*c^2 where m>m(0).
Given that a stationary state can be formed from the linear superposition of momentum eigenstates,
NO! It forms from k-states and the resultant wave has nothing to do with a momentum that follows the de Broglie relationship.
How can a stationary state have a spread in position?
ALL waves have a spread in position since a wave is a field that fills a volume. It MUST have a spread in position to be a wave.
There's nothing intrinsically different between real-space and momentum-space representations.
There is NOT a momentum space at all; only an inverse k-space; and there is a hell of a difference between real-space and k-space (even if you insist to wrongly claim that the latter is a momentum space): They are reciprocals and are therefore intrinsically dfifferent.
"stationary" only requires that <p> = 0, not that <p2> = 0.
When you have a superposition of waves you always have that (delta)k>0: When such a wave is stationary, its group velocity is zero: This does not require that the spread in k-values is a spread in momentums.
No, I'm not. Rather, you are imagining a difference which doesn't exist. The sole difference between momentum and k is a change of units.
There is only a k-space which has NOTHING to do with the momentum of an electron; and can therefore not be a “momentum space”. Only for a runningg harmonic, coherent electron wave, with a single value for k, do you have that p=(hbar)*k. For all other electron waves this is NOT the case.
Take the harmonic oscillator energy eigenstates, for example. All of them have <p> = 0. None of them have <p2> = 0.
They are all stationary waves for which <k2>0
And because <p2> =/= 0, they have kinetic energy.
A stationary matter-wave wave CANNOT have kinetic energy within three-dimensional space EVER, since its intensity does not change harmonically at any point within three dimensional space.
How much kinetic energy? Well, just like classical harmonic oscillators, half their energy is kinetic (Virial theorem).
Except, that owing to the wave’s complex-number amplitude, there is no actual harmonic movement within our three-dimensional space to which you can apply the Virial theorem.
According to you, they shouldn't have any kinetic energy, since they have no momentum.
Their kinetic harmonic vibration does not occur within our three-dimensional space, since the intensity at any point within any stationary (time-independent) solution of the Schroedinger equation does NOT change harmonically with time at all.
So all our harmonic oscillator solutions have the energy wrong by a factor of 2.
Not in the case of a matter wave: The kinetic energy does not manifest within three-dimensional space since your intensity within three-dimensional space is NOT changing harmonically with time at any point at all. No change in position with time=no kinetic energy.
But of course, they aren't. Plenty of experiments prove that.
Which experiments on matter waves prove this? Citations please!
 
Well, duh. That's why you need such a friggin huge field gradient: the diamagnetic polarization is tiny. Like I said, the diamagnetic constant is on the order of -10-5. So instead of the field being, say, 1 Tesla, it's 0.99999 Tesla. You really want to call that a cancelled field?
But you do agree that one can levitate an object that is not a superconductor. So you must agree that it is highly possible that a person can generate a material with a low resistance which he/she then levitates, take a photograph of it, and publishing that he/she has discovered a new superconductor; and it is highly probable that the editor and peer reviewer will publish this as proof of superconduction, even though the material is not a superconductor at all.
We've been over this before, johan. The Meissner effect is part of the standard definition of a superconductor.
And I have pointed out time and again that you can define any nonsense which are not physically correct. In order to make the Meissner effect part of your definition for superconduction you must first prove that superconduction is NEVER possible unless there is a Meissner effect. This has NEVER been proved anywhere.

Thus the best proof possible for superconduction is to prove that the superconductor can form an element within an electric circuit around which a current flows while it is IMPOSSIBLE for an electric field to be present within the element. This is what I have proved for the electron phase that I extracted from a highly doped n-type diamond. So my proof is better than any other proof to date that has been used for all the other materials which have been claimed to be superconductors.
The Meissner effect is what distinguishes a superconductor from a perfect conductor (of which there are no known examples).
I have asked you many times to define what you mean by a “perfect conductor”.
If you discover something with all the properties of a superconductor except the Meissner effect, you haven't discovered a superconductor, you've discovered something else, something entirely new.
If you discover a material which passes a current without an electric field within it this material MUST BE a superconductor even if it has no Meissner effect at all.
 
Either that, or you're wrong.
If one does not accept that one can be wrong, then you should get the hell out of physics. It is even worse to accept that all physics as we understand it at present can never be proved wronh, since this leads to stagnation; as is the case at present.
I know which way I'd bet.
Bet where you want to bet. This is called freedom of choice by the individual; which I respect, even though, according to my insight at present, you will eventually lose your money on this bet.
Then the objections you cite need not be correct either, and hence the fallacy of your appeals to authority should have been obvious even to you.
Are you really so naïve to think that the authorities to which you appealed NEVER made mistakes and it will NEVER be proved that they have made mistakes? I pity you.
Your disagreements with standard quantum mechanics go far beyond the Copenhagen interpretation to the very contents of the theory itself.
My disagreements are all based on the probability interpretation of quantum mechanics which always leads to Voodoo, like Wheeler’s “participating universe”.
Yeah, sure, because that's where Einstein is now: in the trash heap. Why, physicists regularly curse his name.
In his old age he was relegated to the trash heap. Even a lightweight physicist like Sheldon Glashow wrote in his book that Einstein in his old age just did not know his physics anymore. Another lightweight, Freeman Dyson, described how he booked a meeting with Einstein when he arrived in Princeton, but after studying what Einstein was doing he decided it was such a lot of nonsense that he stood Einstein up. The fact is that Einstein knew all along that physics was sidelined in 1927, and desperately tried to reconcile quantum mechanics with relativity in a realistic manner by not using fudging like renormalisation; which he correctly defined as generating epicycles. People like Glashow and Dyson are not even good enough to polish Einstein’s shoes.
Perhaps you mean these folks:
Which three are you, Ben m and Sol Invictus?
 
The uncertaintly principle doesn't refer to the "center of mass" of the wavefunction. It refers to the position observable, i.e. the result of doing an actual position measurement, and the momentum observable, i.e. the result of doing an actual momentum measurement. Neither of these measurements will tell you where the "center of mass" is.
I have told you time and again that I know the standard interpretation of quantum mechanics better than you do since I have also (to my present shame) taught this Voodoo nonsense to my students. The correct interpretation is that (delta)x and (delta)k have NOTHING to do with “uncertainties” when doing a measurement: They are simply the sizes of an electron-wave within position and reciprocal space: Furthermore, just like for any harmonic wave EVER known, the intensity of the electron-wave must represent its ENERGY-DISTRIBUTION. An since the energy of the electron is its mass, this intensity represents the electron’s mass-distribution. As we know ANY mass-distribution has a centre-of-mass and this NOTHING to do with a “point-particle” having the mass of an electron.
The "center of mass" of a wavefunction corresponds to <x>, the *ensemble* average of many measuremens of x.
This is of course absolute nonsense since the average you will measure is determined by the measuring apparatus and if the measuring apparatus cannot measure position simultaneously everywhere in space, which is NOT possible for any position measuring-apparatuses to do, you WIll NOT get <x> as the average of your measurements at all.
The center of momentum is <p>
Similar nonsense since the wave of an electron, moving with a momentum p, must be a coherent wave, or else the electron will not diffract; and such a wave only has a single value for k, and thus a single value for its momentum: There is no uncertainty in its momentum EVER.
Have you ever seen someone claim that there was a quantum uncertainty <x><p> >= hbar/2 ? Of course you haven't. If you have, please give a citation.
You are really way off by putting up straw men which are irrelevant to the argument. What I am claiming, and I do not need anybody else to permit me to use my own brains and logic, is that (delta)x*(delta)k=g for an electron wave has NOTHING to do with any “uncertainties” in the position or momentum of an electron-"particle" at all. And that when an electron moves with a momentum, its wave must be coherent (or else it will not diffract as clearly as electrons do) and for such a wave (delta)k=0: So that only in this case you have that p=(hbar)*k.
Please learn what the actual uncertainty principle says.
I know what the actual uncertainty principle says. I taught this same claptrap to my students for many-many years. My discovery of superconduction at room temperature, however, proved conclusively that an electron wave is NOT a probability distribution and that it has NOTHING to do with “particles”
It's really impossible that someone with your background could have missed this. I assume you learned it correctly once, long ago, then twisted it around in your head when you became (a) desperate to prove everything wrong and (b) too badly out-of-practice to check your own work.
Again you are free to believe what you want to believe; but after years of believing the SAME incorrect “probability-claptrap” and teaching it to my students, I found through my superconducting experiment an interpretation of quantum physics which do not require Voodoo; just like Einstein, Schroedinger and de Broglie all along expected that it must be.
 
Good thing I never did that, then.
Yor explanation falls within the same idiom.
I used Maxwell's equations to do that.
You did not: You tried to use these equations to argue that the charge-carriers within a superconductor can be accelerated even though I claimed that such charge-carriers can NEVER transport a superconducting current. You then incorrectly reasoned that they are accelerated when you have a time-varying electric field: And I pointed out that you are again wrong since you have a displacement current which do not require the acceleration of charge-carriers: So none of your arguments held up under scrutiny.
You presented the obvious solution, but couldn't recognize it for what it was.
Obviously I have found the obvious and correct model for superconduction: Where did I not recognise what it is?
 
Yes I have a question. How do you know you have superconduction?


Excellent question.

I purchased 24 Duracell D batteries and a flashlight. I created a simple 10 foot circuit from 2 D batteries to the bulb with either uninsulated copper or my test wire. Then I timed how long the bulb stayed lit.

I alternated between the copper and my wire, starting each experiment indoors at exactly 8:00 a.m. each morning for 12 consecutive days. The indoor temperature was 68 degrees F (but probably varied a little during each day). Humidity was not constant but, since it was winter in New York, the humidity each day was very low.

Consumer Reports had found that Duracell batteries powered a flashlight for 15 hours. In my experiment, the average time for the copper wire was 10.4 hours. The average time for my wire was 17.9 hours. The longest time for my wire was 19.4 hours and the longest time for the copper wire was 11.5 hours.

I'm sorry if this experiment wasn't as scientific as possible. I have no background in the sciences and very little money to dedicate to my hobby.
 
I purchased 24 Duracell D batteries and a flashlight. I created a simple 10 foot circuit from 2 D batteries to the bulb with either uninsulated copper or my test wire. Then I timed how long the bulb stayed lit.

I alternated between the copper and my wire, starting each experiment indoors at exactly 8:00 a.m. each morning for 12 consecutive days. The indoor temperature was 68 degrees F (but probably varied a little during each day). Humidity was not constant but, since it was winter in New York, the humidity each day was very low.

Consumer Reports had found that Duracell batteries powered a flashlight for 15 hours. In my experiment, the average time for the copper wire was 10.4 hours. The average time for my wire was 17.9 hours. The longest time for my wire was 19.4 hours and the longest time for the copper wire was 11.5 hours.
In other words what you measured was how long it took for the batteries to become depleted?

If this is what you did, then I am sorry to disappoint you, since I admire your willingness to argue physics; and hope you will never give up thinking about it. It is only through many mistakes and the willingness to make mistakes that physics actually moves forwards: And in many cases it is the non-expert who asks the relevant question since the "experts" are too scared that they might be proved wrong.

Unfortunately your experiment actually proves that your wire has a higher resistivity than copper wire. The lifetime of the batteries increases when the resistance of the circuit through which it drives a current increases. If there is no circuit, there is effectively no current and the batteries can then last maybe even for years. The lower the resistance of the circuit, the higher the current and the sooner the batteries become depleted. Therefore, you should also note that with your wire the light bulb will not burn as brightly as with the copper wire. Sorry to disappoint you, but NEVER stop thinking about simple experiments since, even if you are wrong most of the time, this is the only path towards advancing real knowledge.

Einstein also stated the latter; and he should know since he made many mistakes while formulating his General Theory of Relativity. In fact, although he found an explanation for gravity (probably the correct one) in terms of the curvature of space time; many of the arguments he used to extrapolate from his Special Theory of Relativity to his General Theory, and which are still found in text books today, can be proved to be wrong.
 
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Unfortunately your experiment actually proves that your wire has a higher resistivity than copper wire. The lifetime of the batteries increases when the resistance of the circuit through which it drives a current increases. If there is no circuit, there is effectively no current and the batteries can then last maybe even for years. The lower the resistance of the circuit, the higher the current and the sooner the batteries become depleted. Therefore, you should also note that with your wire the light bulb will not burn as brightly as with the copper wire. Sorry to disappoint you, but NEVER stop thinking about simple experiments since, even if you are wrong most of the time, this is the only path towards advancing real knowledge.


I'm not sure about that. I used a light meter to measure the output of the bulb at different stages (about once an hour). In all cases, the bulb burned just as bright. Each experiment ended when the bulb dimmed (I think I might have implied that I ran each experiment until the bulb went out). In fact, it was the light meter that ended each test by stopping the timer when the readout dropped 3%.

I also used a volt meter to measure the rate of discharge of the batteries. The voltage was always exactly the same.
 
I'm not sure about that. I used a light meter to measure the output of the bulb at different stages (about once an hour). In all cases, the bulb burned just as bright. Each experiment ended when the bulb dimmed (I think I might have implied that I ran each experiment until the bulb went out). In fact, it was the light meter that ended each test by stopping the timer when the readout dropped 3%.
In order to measure the output of light is more complicated than just using a commercial light meter. You probably will not have picked up the difference.
I also used a volt meter to measure the rate of discharge of the batteries. The voltage was always exactly the same.
The battery also has an internal voltage that changes as it discharges which must be taken into account. What you have to measure is the difference in current which will require a very accurate ammeter.

Even so, the fact that the batteries lasted longer with your wire than with copper wire remains incontrovertible proof that your wire has a higher resistivity than copper; even if you did not make any other measurements. If your wire drastically reduced the lifetime of the batteries you will have proof that your wire has a lower restance. Think about short circuiting a car battery with a copper cable: Sparks will fly owing to the low resistance path and if you are not careful you will blow up your car battery.
 
I have decided to jump to this post after I have read your intermediate long rambling posts above.
...
Wow - what a waste of time ignoring the question and then ranting on about dogma!

Even though I have been respected as a scientist of international repute, my publications on superconduction have all been blocked simply because they are at variance with accepted dogma.
Can you provide evidence that your papers were rejected because of "dogma"? For example you might have the reviewer comments.

Status should mean nothing in the scientific process. Any scientific paper should fail or succeed on its own merit. If it cannot convince experts in the field that it is valid then it will be rejected. The fact that your papers did not is a reflection on the weakness of the papers, not any delusion that you have that the reviewers are sticking to an imaginary "dogma".
 
Wow - what a waste of time ignoring the question and then ranting on about dogma!
Which question?
Can you provide evidence that your papers were rejected because of "dogma"? For example you might have the reviewer comments.
Yes I do quote some of these instances all over in my book (not all of them since then my book would have been an encyclopaedia of the bigotry of peer reviewers). I also give a summary of the most glaring instances in section 37 of my book, entitled “A Sordid Tale”. If I have to post all of this (and it is only partial information) on this thread, the post will become the longest post EVER on any forum EVER. I will thus only quote two typical examples:

(1) When I first tried to publish my model of superconduction, this was the response from a referee: “The microscopic mechanism for the description of low temperature superconductors (s-pairing) is known since 1957. This mechanism describes well all known experimental data on low-temperature superconductors (the latter cliam is obviously a blatant lie) and it is text book material. Therefore there is no need to consider a new mechanism for the low temperature superconductors”.

(2) After trying many other journals and getting similar responses, I was advised to try Proc. Roy. Soc. A, since the Royal Society supposedly has impeccable integrity, and “will” thus only judge my manuscript on its own merit. This is the response: “In the conventional pairing theory the description of electromagnetism of superconductors is remarkably complicated and goes far beyond the London approach. Being not an expert of this theory, I can’t say how this formalism explains the cancellation of a static electric-field, but I would be very surprised if it really can’t do so.”
Status should mean nothing in the scientific process. Any scientific paper should fail or succeed on its own merit.
For the first time I agree with you, but, although it “should be the case”, this is not the factual situation, since in most of the cases (if not all the cases) a manuscript that gives an alternative to accepted dogma is rejected outright: It is happening more and more that even the administrative editor rejects such a manuscript without sending it out for peer review.
If it cannot convince experts in the field that it is valid then it will be rejected.
Did the two peer reviewers that I have quoted above examined my manuscripts “on its own merit”, and then rejected it by giving scientifically well motivated reasons why? If you believe that, then you are really the biggest crater on earth.
The fact that your papers did not is a reflection on the weakness of the papers, not any delusion that you have that the reviewers are sticking to an imaginary "dogma".
Well explain to me where the two referees above pointed out the weakness of my manuscripts and did not go all out to protect the BCS-dogma.

The first referee reasoned that a new mechanism is not required since we already have a mechanism. This is the same as the Vatican that rejected Galileo since they already have Ptolemy’s model of the universe which “explains all known experimental data”.

The second referee only refers to my discussion of the London model in my manuscript, totally ignoring my discussion of the BCS model etc. and my alternative model: And reject my manuscript by admitting that he/she “is not an expert”. But since he would be "surprised" my manuscript must be wrong.
 

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