MG1962
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- Sep 27, 2006
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- 17,252
That all sounds pretty familiar and about right, but more vague than I thought. If members of a group are killed -or even mentally harmed-it's genocide? By that, this clearly qualifies then, as does a lot of other violence that kills people who belong to a (geno-type) group anywhere, and even "hate speech" or less, depending on what causes "mental harm" to "members of the group.")
I guess I'm wondering if it rises to the more stringest standards of trying to wipe out the group -killing lots of kids, sterilizing people, killing a significant number of people to really impede reproductive rates, targeting institutions essential to the community's future, etc.
As I understand the Nuremberg principles, if those 8000 were rounded up and killed specifically because they were Muslims, then yes the charge of genocide stands. If they were rounded up as part of a wider purge of local population then it is better defined as a war crime.
We can see the distinction in Poland during WW2 - Jews were specifically targeted and their 3 million deaths are considered genocide. about 2 million Catholics were also killed, but not because they were Catholic, so their deaths are seen as war crimes.