If you look at plasma processes in terms of what the electrons and ions (and neutral atoms/molecules too) are doing, how does a magnetic field arise (excluding externally imposed fields)?
Given that moving charges create such fields, does the existence of such magnetic fields - in the solar wind say, or the Sun - automatically mean that there are currents (in terms of contemporary physics)?
Is there a quantum mechanics version of Maxwell's equations?
I'm quite interested in all folk who've been actively participating in this thread recently to reply to the these questions; I'm particularly interested to hear from iantresman, Zeuzzz, and BeAChooser on the extent to which you think Alfvén, Birkeland, Peratt, Scott, Thornhill, et al. modified/extended plasma physics (a branch of classical physics) to incorporate the reality of the actual charge carriers (electrons and ions).
Magnetism is caused only by the flow of charge. Magnetism and electricity are inextricably linked via maxwells equations.
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Thanks very much for this Zeuzzz!
I am gradually coming to understand at least some parts of the disconnect between you (and, probably, BeAChooser) and people like ben m; and this pretty clearly illustrates one part (well, it does to me anyway).
You see, I asked about how the modern understanding of the causes of electricity and magnetism relates to Maxwell's equations and the classical view.
You replied with a very firm, very clear, no-room-for-misunderstanding answer, for which I thank you once again.
However, magnetism arises by at least one mechanism other than the flow of charge - unpaired electron spins in atomic orbitals, which you did not mention.
Now I'm sure you know this (and much more) about magnetism, so one reason for the breakdown of communication evident in this thread is your failure to include sufficient context or scope, at least for your statements which come across as so firm and clear (or so it seems to me).
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This is addressed in the publication I keep quoting (and will continue to until someone actually shows why it is wrong)
http://members.cox.net/dascott3/IEEE-TransPlasmaSci-Scott-Aug2007.pdf
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As I mentioned in my reply to iantresman earlier today, several people have commented on Scott's paper, and some have (I think) pointed out why it is wrong.
Perhaps to better understand one reason why this thread is so long, I will attempt to gather all the responses (and your comments on them) together into one post. If nothing else that would likely give me greater insight into why you think no one has explained why Scott is wrong despite the fact that at least one person thinks just such an explanation has been given.
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It is not Alfvén, Birkeland, Peratt, Scott, Thornhill, et al, that need to modify their physics to account for the reality of the actual charge carriers, their work is firmly based on this; electric currents (or Birkeland currents) and the magnetism that these circuits produce in space.
In contrast, astronomers seem to often ignore the complementary electrical component that always accompanies magnetism. They will talk of the interstellar magnetic field, without any reference to the currents producing it, they will tak about the chaotic magnetic field of the sun, without any reference to the persistant electrical currents that must sustain it.
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Actually,
ben m has already addressed this directly, in commenting on my post on
iantresman's one in which he quoted Alfvén:
DeiRenDopa said:
sol invictus and and ben m: do you think Alfvén, in the bit iantresman quoted, is right about the equivalence of treatment (B vs i), and the possible loss of some important aspects by using B instead of i?
This is where I keep tearing my hair out: space plasma physicists aren't ignoring anything. My colleagues who work on the WIND spacecraft have lots of data on the "lunar wake": there's an electric field behind the Moon due to the fact that moon casts a "shadow" in the Solar Wind, and this shadow is filled in more rapidly by electrons than by protons. They deal with non-equilibrium plasmas where the protons and electrons have different temperatures. They talk to tokamak experts for whom the currents are the most important parameters. The "plasma waves" they talk about are not disembodied magnetic fields: they're a coupled system of currents, fields, and densities/pressures. If these wave modes are the appropriate degrees of freedom, then it's fine to only talk about one marker of the waves---it's like talking about a pendulum's motion by describing its "amplitude". ("Amplitude? You forgot about momentum-space", says the pedant. No I didn't---if we're talking about a pendulum with an oscillation period, the momentum is in there.) Are these waves "appropriate" degrees of freedom? Generally, half of the history of physics has been describing complex systems as the sum of a bunch of wave modes---we're quite good at identifying the benefits and pitfalls of this approach, and plasma people talk a lot about which degrees of freedom to use where.
Nonetheless, the PC persecution-fantasy requires them to think that we're leaving something out. So they make stuff up. You're leaving out electric fields! (Not where they exist, we're not.) You're leaving out the particle properties! (Nope.) You're leaving out the currents! (Where do you think we got the fields from?) You're leaving out the charge on the Sun! (Because it isn't there.) You only think it isnt there because you ignore electric fields! (Lather, rinse, repeat.)
The PC argument you mention---"You should use my technique, your technique is ignoring several effects"---hasn't actually been advanced at all on this board, since BAC and Zeuzzz are busy convincing us that magnetic field lines don't really exist. The hypothetical argument would be more impressive if the arguers could actually show examples where (a) their effect is actually ignored, causing (b) the results to disagree with observations. I haven't seen anything to convince me.
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Perhaps you missed this?
In any case, ben m seems to be saying, quite clearly, that astronomers do not, generally, ignore the complementary electrical component.
Further, his answer seems quite plausible, because he (and others) very clearly stated how magnetic fields arise in plasmas ... and his answer is also in line with what Alfvén said (that iantresman quoted).
Perhaps one reason this thread is so long is because you don't understand what ben m wrote? or that you don't believe him?