Skin Color & Earning Studies=Woo?

Tanja:

From the article, it seems like the 1967 source was from a physical anthropologist's study. That study included a map of the world's geography, without identifying any countries.

The map had 8 different shades of color showing the average skin colors of people who lived in that area.

I guess it makes sense to me to do it this way, as just crossing a neighboring country's border likely does not result in a radical change in skin color.

Given that countries weren't identified in the '67 source, the IQ authors enlisted the help of grad students. They coded skin color by country using their eyeballs, with apparently reliabilities in the .90s

Thank you for your reply - it makes the study easier to understand.
 
In the gif here, substitute perceptual effect for IQ. The left distribution might be Africans; the right distribution whites.

No, it couldn't. That's the whole point. Your graph is misleading, since it shows "African" having approximately the same variance as other races.

There is no " African race." On any genetic trait you care to name, the variance within Africans is so great that it dwarfs the variance in any other national or continental group.

A proper graph would show a bell curve labelled."Africans" and a few Dirac deltas labelled "Europeans" "Asians" "left-handed Slovenien sewer flute players' and so forth.

I do believe culture has little to no affect on Spearman's g.

I believe that this is true. This may in fact, be the only scientifically accurate statement on IQ that you've ever made.

Culture has no effect whatsoever on Spearman's g. Nor on Santa Claus, nor on the Swedish unicorn fisheries, nor on Glinda the Good Witch.

Because none of the four are real.
 
I could get the curves just by doing an eyeball test-- looking at people and based on their skin color, classify them as african or white.

I'd bet my reliability would be well above .90 but not perfect.

Thereafter, if we gave each group iq tests, we'd get the curves I described.

Strange that if neither race nor g exists, the mean difference (as reflected by the curves) has been replicated for about 90 years now. So much so-- a point I've made ad nauseum-- that the american courts have no trouble accepting that the difference exists and is not due to test bias.
 
This is such an obnoxious thread derail (and I give primary blame to bpesta) that I'm going to start a new thread on this topic -bpesta, a gentleman's request to you not to participate in it.
 
This is such an obnoxious thread derail (and I give primary blame to bpesta) that I'm going to start a new thread on this topic -bpesta, a gentleman's request to you not to participate in it.

get over yourself. :rolleyes:
 

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