Skepticism and The Normal

anybody else care to carry on with the objective/subjective argument? Badscience people? Anyone?

Is there any definition of objective/subjective that you can provide which does not produce contradictions in reality and COMMON usage?

is anyone going to argue that objective/subjective is NOT ambiguous in common usage? Is anyone going to argue that there is a standard refrence for objective/subjective that all can see and do agree upon?

IS the ONLY argument against mine that it's distinguishable from how some of you use the term?

Because the folks at badscience are STILL posting threads about me and these discussions over there. And according to them, I am 'tied' in a knot, struggling to defend my position.

My position has been easy to defend, other than time consuming. and it appears I have advanced all arguments past Jonny, Zaay, and Flim.



BF
 
So to close: Objective/Subjective can work logically and rationally, as well as intuitively, with true and false when a third value is available inside of the operation. By rationally I mean that their logical reasonings do not produce contradictions in reality or with the commonly accepted usage of the terms given in the dictionary.

The arguments against this seem to stress one point, and one point only. That objective statements can be parsed into true or false, and a false statement can therefore still be considered an objective statement in this regard. But it should be noted that it is this definition of objective that is incredibly narrow, and is only a focus on application of 'objective' used in grammar, or soley relative to grammar in bivalent logic, as in a "closed statement" is an "objective statement" which can only be true or false.

This usage, however is contradictory with THREE other common usages of "objective" in the dictionary, and ALL of which are in harmony with OS 012. These definitions of objective are:

1.) Of or having to do with a material object.
2.)Having actual existence or reality.
3.)Uninfluenced by emotions or personal prejudices: an objective critic. See synonyms at fair. Based on observable phenomena; presented factually: an objective appraisal.

Keep in mind that these three definitions of objective are the top three specified and COMMON usages of objective. There are two 'particular' meanings of objective that are given after these three, which state: Medicine. Indicating a symptom or condition perceived as a sign of disease by someone other than the person affected.
Grammar. Of, relating to, or being the case of a noun or pronoun that serves as the object of a verb. Of or relating to a noun or pronoun used in this case.


So the fifth definition of 'objective' does indeed support the logic of a closed statement being either true or false. The problem with that is that is a closed rule in grammar, does not coincide with any truth other than grammar, may produce contradictions with the first three definitions when used outside of closed sentences in logic. It's nothing more than how 'objective' is used inside of a closed set. And 'objective' still holds the same value of what it relates, the viewable grammatical 'object', relative to the invisible and subjectivly dependent verb. Note how you cannot have a verb function unless it relates to an 'object'. In grammar, the object takes hold as a linguistic struture soley to relate to the verb, it's existence is not in question in grammar.

Yet the arguments given trying to refute me claimed that it is my usage that is narrow, or not in step with common usage. That is clearly not a rational argument, they are far closer to normal and standard usage than the particular use in grammar.


Please dont bore me with tit for tat of previous arguments about this, this is the argument summed up with all sides squared.

If there is an argument to it, then you can extract it from this post.
 
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That's it. I am about to deal with Wayne's analysis. Other than Wayne, all other arguments coming from Zaay, Jonny, Flim, or any of the badscience crowd are now officially refuted beyond any possible logical or reasonable argument.

Period.

There is no rational argument provided by any of them against the logical usage of three values in either logic or philosophy.

The subarguments getting to the heart of the matter have all been addressed as well.

There is no mathematical contradiction to the usage of 0,1, and 2 as a number set to signify these distinctions.

There is no logical argument against three value operations. There is no refined, elegant, or beautiful philosophy which can refute a three valued philosophy.

There is no narrow usage of objective and subjective in OS 012. There is no redefining of truth values or terminology. It's terminology is either identical to or consistant with terms commonly defined in the dictionary. As it is a metalogic, it simply addresses the commoness found in the dictionary metalogically, and thus updates these terms into a higher order of dialectic.

There is no rational argument against beauty being both objective and subjective. There are no rational arguments that can objectively state Angelina Jolie's ugliness or commonness in appearance.

There is no argument against the laws of thermodynamics being statistical. There is no scientific argument that can state that there can be, for 100% certainty, no anomaly discovered in the universe which would appear to violate these laws. Any further arguments regarding the Steorn technology are thus not scientific arguments, but philosophical ones. Since the claim of steorn and the proof of the claim resides in the future, there can be no argument that the future is not an uncertainty and a valid third value event. There is no argument against remaining skeptical regarding ALL claims regarding Steorn until the truth of the present crashes with the mystery of the future.

Third value skepticisms are consistant and rational. Two value skepticisms are fundamentalist disbelief, and are arguments of philosophy with disregard to logic.

Any further argument at this point will irrefutably be able to show consistant contradictions to reality and produce frustrations in those making them.

I will address Wayne's arguments next.

he is your last hope, wish him well.
 
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Can anyone tell me WTF Bubblefish is on about? I can't figure it out.

Oh, and at this juncture I feel it is appropriate to move to:

Greenpark.
 
Forgive me, I misspoke a bit. I just found a rebuttal by Yaffle that I missed, and should give detail to.

If I have missed what anyone feels is a critical argument, please address. It is my intention to tie this discussion up, not tie it in loose ends.

So Wee_eck admits to just beginning her research into this subject matter since these discussions have inspired her.


Well my starting point was to find out more to use to show bubba why his usage of objective is inappropriate to the context he is using it in.

I dont think you yet understand the context of how I am using it. To do so would mean you understand the third value operations, and you dont. But let's give it a roll.


My main idea was that he wants to use the journalism version of objective - which basically means taking a neutral point of view.

No, you are mistaken. I do not use the journalism point of view on objective. My intention using journalism as an example was to refute that my meaning was thin and narrow, and journalism is 'closer' to how it is defined in common usage, not a closed rule set of grammar.

But he is applying this definition to "ideas" - saying that an idea can be objective by his definition.

Yes, but not in the same way that you are defining me to journalism or 'netral' point of view

But only people can have a neutral point of view - ideas cannot.

Ideas are the result of a point of view. Thus, objective ideas relate information to ALL points of view.

People can be objective about ideas (using bubbas sense), but ideas cannot be objective in this sense.

2 + 2 = 4 is an objective idea. it is mutually shared conceptual object that we all agree upon and determine equally, thus it is objective.

therefore if we are talking about the ideas, the other common meaning of objective (as used in philosophy) is really the best definition and the journalism one is inappropriate to the context.

Objectivism is closer to idea, yes, because it involves philosophy, and journalism involes common perception, not philosophical perception.

So anyway I started googling to look more into the philosophical sense of objective and found that as I thought, it specifically excludes the journalism sense, but while I was doing so I found this (http://www.philosophypages.com/dy/o.htm) - and I think I came across a couple of similar instances:

good, and as you can see, OS 012 is in harmony with objectivity in philosophy.


Since then I have been reading and getting myself confused about (since I am a complete novice at philosophy)

Yaffle, you are an admitted novice at philosophy, yet for months have tried to refute this philosophically? That is very naive. If you would have asked questions, since you dont understand, you would have had a different experience.

Instead, you have defended your philosophy when clearly you were unaware of it's implications.

That's called reacting, not thinking.


the nuances of the two words and what they imply. The latest I have been reading is this:

http://instruct.westvalley.edu/lafave/subjective_objective.html

I haven't got my head around it enough to discuss it yet, but you might want to read it too.

AMAZING that the first line of that paper supports my argument. "The words "subjective" and " objective" cause lots of confusion."

Notice that it didnt say " The common usage of objective/subjective is understood"

I have just skimmed more than half of the paper, and so far, it seems perfectly consistant with everything I have written.

On second thought, I really didnt need to address this post at all. For prosperity's sake, however, I will post it.


BF
 
Can anyone tell me WTF Bubblefish is on about? I can't figure it out.

either can they, it's been months and they are still stumped. They can't refute it consistantly, yet they do keep trying. they dont know what to make of all of this.

Oh, and at this juncture I feel it is appropriate to move to:

Greenpark.

Sorry to do this, but I naturally have a counter in

EARL'S COURT

BF
 
Wayne

Ad hominem and insults clustered above. These do not help your arguments, and simply cause you to lose credibility.

Wayne, my apologies for our sloppy hello. I do admit I was nerved a bit when viewing your first post, soley to the extant of work it provided me. Please forgive, and let’s start fresh, eh?


Incidentally, my original post to which you replied (post #1577) wasn't directed you, it was to the people playing Mornington Crescent, and your response to my post (which was clearly not directed at you) implied that you wished for me to join in the non-Mornington Crescent aspect of the conversation, an invitation, of sorts. I obliged by responding to your post on its own merits.

Yes, I understand, and take responsibility for that comment, sorry.

If your post couldn't stand on its own merits and you didn't want criticism, you shouldn't have posted it in the first place, or should at least have provided reference material that would have clarified the rules you listed. Considering how incredibly illogical those rules were, however, I am certain now, and was certain at the time, that no set of references could possibly have made any difference.

Wonderfully put. Okay, fine, we have a clear disagreement whose truth value can be resolved using rationality and objectivity between two points of view. Will you join me?


Now, regarding your statement above, I explained carefully why the idea of the giant, furry, pink and green polka dotted bird is neither true nor false.

It depends upon how you are applying true or false. I apply them metalogically to statements, and metalogically, that is indeed a false idea. It is false because it’s existence is soley in subjective nature, imagination, and is inconsistent with operations in objective reality, whose ideas are signified as ‘true’


It is because there is no context in which to judge it. Without a context, it could be either true or false.

I’m sorry, but again, this is not true from a metalogical perspective. The context is in the content. The content refrences an imaginary creature. Imagination is the false relative to the true of objective reality metalogically.

Unless your framework implies some context, then the idea of the bird is still neither true nor false.

The context of the framework is awareness and perception of reality. We frame reality in sets of ideas for understanding. All of these ideas are distinguishable into three sets or limits of metalogical value.

If your framework does provide a context, then you need to define that framework and show what context it provides, otherwise your statement above does not hold up. As for your contention that "a false idea is a definition of a 02 value, not a 02 value a definition for false," the first part seems to define "02 value," but this is pointless since "02 value" wasn't even used in any of the preceding material, and the second part doesn't actually say anything at all.

All I need to state is that the framework is framed in ideas. That’s it. Ideas automatically assume a metacognitive environment by definition alone.

In order for an idea to be true or false, there must be some basis upon which to judge the truth or falsehood of the idea. In the bird example, until you apply that idea to, say, the real world in some way, perhaps by claiming that such a bird exists, you have no way to judge the idea itself, and the idea could be either true or false. By applying the idea, saying something like, "The bird exists in the real world," or "The bird does not exist in the real world," you gain a context in which to judge the truth or falsehood of the idea, although the idea itself without that context (that is, on its own) is still neither true nor false.

Metalogically, and even logically, true relates to the real and mutually viewable world by default. It’s founded in ‘existence’. So to state that an idea is true, it is true then, relative to it’s environment for existence.


Here are the definitions for true and false. These sources explain in my own language (English) just as well as I can. If your contention that "not true" implies false, this is simply not the case.

What I said was false implies ‘not true’ by default, and all definitions of false simply state that. All definitions of false given simply relate the logical operation, not the essence of what false is. False’s essence is not ‘not true’, rather, it’s essence is something illusory and subjective.

This is a logical fallacy.

It’s not a logical fallacy I have ever heard of. Where is stating false is ‘not true’ a logical fallacy?

False is, indeed, defined in terms of true. If something is false, then it is not true (by definition).

Exactly, but what is it other than not true? Unknown is not true either. What is false other than not true, can you define that?

Look at how it’s relationship to true is dependent in the majority of definitions

http://www.answers.com/false&r=67

This also means that if something is true, it is not false.
Yes, but the definitions of true are expandable beyond being ‘not false’. We don’t need to relate to false when defining true.

http://www.answers.com/true&r=67

However, the fallacy comes in when you try to say that if something is not true, then it is false, or if something is not false, then it is true. This is argument from fallacy, and that is pure logic, not merely my reasoning. Sorry.

That’s not a reasoning I have ever used.

So are you saying that you redefined "true" and "false" as well as "mystery" in your first rule? That would be the only instance where I would object to the use of the words "true" and "false." If you did redefine "true" and "false," how could you expect anybody to understand anything you're talking about?

True and false are not ‘redefined’ in OS 012, rather, they are ‘refined’ to include their values at a metalogical level, and these refinements are not contradictory with true and false in logic.

First, using nonstandard definitions or redefined terms leads to confusion, both for readers and for people who are trying to join into the discussion.

First off, there is not really a standard understanding of true or false or objective and subjective. These words are used quite inconsistently and there is no system that I know of that can allow or test for their objective validity in common usage, other than OS 012.

All we are given is the dictionary, and even some of these definitions in the dictionary are contradictory with other definitions of the same word.

Secondly, I do not redefine words outside of their sphere of relevance in the dictionary.


Further, I would like to encourage others to join in the discussion, something that the redefinition of terms will actively discourage in part because of the confusion redefinition causes.

this discussion already is a perfect example of the confusion that already exists with these terms. The reason there is so much confusion is that at the meta logical level, these terms can ONLY mean specific things, and we do not have a mutual language that communicates these shared perceptions, other than true, false, objective, subjective, which are very ambiguous in common language.

With redefinition of the term "mystery," if somebody uses that word then it becomes more difficult to know which, if any, definition should apply for that use.

I don’t accept much of your argument in princaple, even though it doesn’t apply to OS 012 regardless. It sounds like you think words are descriptions of things, not prescriptions for things. If what you were saying were true, then no new words could be created or could evolve to further clarification.

Take for example the word tautology. It has two usages, one in logic, and the other I believe in rhetoric. Those two usages are very distinct, so much so that if one uses the logical word tautology, someone else would get confused, as has happened with me and PV on this thread. He was unaware that something can be ‘tautologically’ true in logic even though the statement’s content may not be.

Third, when somebody uses a redefined word, the redefinition makes it possible for somebody to deliberately misinterpret what that person is saying, while maintaining a facade of credibility.

When we are defining our language into agreement, which is what contract negotiations are, we constantly have to define how we use certain ‘terms’ relative to the agreement and contract. Those terms are ‘refined’ into legal parsings. This is standard practice. You seem to be arguing against this, and this is what helps us get clarity in negotiation.



Fourth, as an extension of my third point, if I were to agree to use your redefined terms, it would then be much easier for my post to be entirely taken out of context, so that I could be made to seem like I'm saying something that I'm not actually saying. While this is always a possibility, it becomes much more of a possibility when the terms that we use in discussion aren't those that are in common use, and I will avoid, as much as I can, following a track that would knowingly open up my comments to that sort of intellectual dishonesty.

for anything that could said to exist, it’s actual word is almost irrelevant. A pig is still a pig if you call it a duck.
In Italian, ‘penne’ is a quality of pasta, in Mexican, it’s male genitalia.

We must define how we use words relative to our operations, and if those definitions do not contradict the dictionary, then our definitions are not ‘redefinitions’ but refinements relative to our operation.

Fifth, it is completely unnecessary to redefine terms in this (or almost any) discussion. If you wish to argue a point on "OS 012" where you have to use tricky ideas, then it is simple to spell out those ideas when they actually occur in your argument so that there is never any doubt as to what definitions you are using. Further, it is realistically no more difficult to continue to spell out those ideas wherever necessary.

The objective and common usage of the logical set true, false, and unknown are a perfect language for OS 012 to use, and your critique here is not valid or applicable, nor is it even logical. You are introducing a heuristic method for word usage, which is fine if you are an editor at a newspaper, but poor if you are developing a new dynamic framework.

Now, in case you are wondering if I consider you capable of the deliberate dishonesty that I have spelled out in points three and four above, then the answer is a resounding "yes." Perhaps if you weren't so insistent upon people using your ridiculously redefined term, were willing to work with standard definitions while spelling out your arguments when they occur, addressed points that people specifically ask you to address without resorting to non-responsive rhetoric, and avoided insults and ad hominem attacks, then I (and others) might feel differently. Of course, if those conditions had already been met then I would never have needed to address this issue in the first place.

Your comment simply isn’t valid. I am redefining no terms, I use commonly accepted usage, and produce no contradictions with reality.

BF
 
Jee-BUZ! All those posts - and I bet he still hasn't managed even one correct objective statement, has he?

Ignore is fun.

Luckily, all we need to is sit back and let Rome make a fool of himself.

Carry on!
 
Wayne





There is no STANDARD for the use of 'objective' other than the dictionary. The only thing that could be considered 'standard use' or 'public use' would be the use of objectivity in Journalism, which may even be it's source. And it is also ambiguous in Journalism.

Okay, first, it may be helpful to point out that this statement has at least one (and possibly several) logical contradiction in it. You say that there is no standard use for 'objective' other than the dictionary, but then you state that the only standard that could be considered would be 'objective' as it is used in journalism. The origin for the standard use of 'objective' cannot come only from the dictionary, but also only from journalism. This is impossible, a logical contradiction. You're assigning the unique origin of the standard use for 'objectivity' to two sources.

An invalid argument if you look into my meaning. My usage of Standard means ‘Something, such as a practice or a product, that is widely recognized or employed, especially because of its excellence.. Naturally the dictionary contains the ‘widely recognized usage’ of the term. It is not an epistemological argument about the origins of objective, rather, it was meant as a critical assessment of standard usages of objective, found in both the dictionary, and journalism. I do not consider the philosophical usage of objective to be ‘common usage’, nor do I find your critique here valid, as it missed my meaning or usage of the terms used.

When I state that journalism may be the source for the common usage, that was ancedotal, not a substrate of my argument.

Now, if you were to say that the origins of the standard uses for 'objectivity' were not unique, and could originate both from the dictionary and from journalism, then this statement would at least be logically consistent in that regard. Then, however, you would have to explain how the dictionary can be an origin of 'standard usage,' rather than what most people consider it to be, merely a source that describes what is taken to be the standard usage of words. You would also have to substantiate your idea that 'objectivity' as used in journalism is, in fact, different from what is in common use, and that its use in journalism is ambiguous.

I don’t understand where you are getting the ‘origin’ argument from. When did I bring epistemology into it critically? Surely if there was a strict common standard of objectivety, journalism would be said to have to hold that standard, right?

I find this comment not to be rational in light of my argument here.

In any case, here is the definition for the word objective. And here is the definition of the word subjective. These are in the dictionary because the dictionary collects words that are in standard use by the population speaking the language that is covered by the dictionary, and then describes what those words are taken to mean by the population speaking that language. These standard definitions, as you see in dictionaries, are based on how the words are used in the real world. This is one reason why redefining words is such a bad idea, because if you do you then fall out of line with the standard definition (as described by the dictionary and used by everybody else) and then nobody can understand what the heck you're talking about.

Wayne, I really don’t know how to respond to all of this, it’s simply a connection of invalid statements that are based onto this assumption that I am redefining something outside of it’s standard reference, and that simply is not true, and I challenge anyone, you included, to find which term of OS 012 has be redefined outside of it’s common usage.

The only argument one could make was that ‘false’ is defined very specifically inside of OS 012. Yet this itself is not a redefinition of the word, it’s simply is a description of how false operates meta logically.

Have you considered truth values and how they operate at the metalogical level of awareness?

Actually, we're not telling you that this is how we define terms. We're telling you that this is how these terms are defined by the vast majority of people who use the terms, and therefore these definitions are the correct definitions of the words as used in the English language.

No, that’s not what you are telling me. You are telling me that current definitions provided in the dictionary are contradictory with how you apply them. That’s what you are telling me.

There will always be deviations, i.e. people who use the words incorrectly, but those deviations are generally very quickly corrected since most words have very solid definitions that are already in common use, and using any other definition will make it difficult or impossible to communicate intelligibly with people. People who use nonstandard (incorrect) definitions for words will normally have a very strong motivation to learn and use the correct definitions so that they can communicate effectively with people.

I have a strong feeling you hate poetry.


As far as the contradictions and inconsistency that you mention, we're telling you that there are no contradictions and no inconsistency in the correct definitions of the terms "objective" and "subjective," which are the definitions that we've been using.

Well that’s magical thinking then, because when you apply logical consistency to objective in your usage, it produces an inconsistency that you are failing to account for other than saying it magically doesn’t apply to you because that’s how you use the term.


We've demonstrated this.

You as in you all, have demonstrated your arguments and have produced contradictions within those arguments that you don’t want to account for.

"Objective" and "subjective" have nothing to do with "true" and "false," but instead describe, well, you can read the definitions for yourself (see above).

If that were true, then objective and subjective would be meaningless gibberish. Objective and subjective perfectly relate to true and false inside of a three value logic. Inside of a bivalent logic, they will produce contradictions, so therefore, you assume that there is no connection.

First of all, is "OS 012" the set of rules that you posted earlier in response to my post regarding the game that these good folks are playing? If so, then there is no part of those rules that holds up under scrutiny, logical or otherwise. I've demonstrated this.

are you a school teacher by any chance?

You have simply given your anti-thesis. Naturally you predetermine it to be true, but you haven’t been vetted yet through this process, may I suggest you hold back your certainty here abit when confronting a three valued conceptual object for the first time?



If that set of rules you posted is not "OS 012", then why did you post those rules in the first place? What are they? I'm dreadfully curious about that.

Those are the laws of dialectic stated in OS 012 in Theory. You are free to argue them, and one of those laws simply says YOU WILL argue them. So already, you are supporting at least one of the laws in practice.



Taking 'coupling' to have the standard meaning, you're talking about "OS 012" being both objective and subjective at the same time.

Bingo

Well, this is impossible, by any standard definition of the words "objective" and "subjective." Check the definitions.

I am quite familiar with the definitions, thank you, have been working with them for over four years now. And I told you to be careful before stating your certainty regarding a three value conceptual object, eh? With three values, we can have both at once and indeed always do. We have both objective and subjective happening at once when viewing pure beauty. Opposites do not contradict, they support. They only contradict in our minds when we misplace them.

There is always sunset, sunrise, noon and midnight always happening at once. Indeed, we have day and night at once at sunrise and sunset.. And we also have true and false happening at once in unknown, or mystery.



Here they are, just FYI: objective subjective. Also, if any part of "OS 012" is subjective, then that part is, by definition, in some way disconnected from reality (either by merely lacking in reality, or by having personal bias or personal perception behind it, etc.) So, if any part of "OS 012" is subjective, then it is not consistent with reality, and therefore, by your statement above, the definition is inherently flawed.

The part of OS 012 that is subjective is YOUR point of view about OS 012, that OS 012 accounts for OBJECTIVELY.


Sorry, quoting this twice, but I think this needs to be said. I'm pretty sure that most people here don't care about "OS 012." If we were to ignore it, it would go away.

OS 012 is currently developing at a rapid pace both academically and commercially, and any opinion here is nothing more than a blog entry


We're not "reactors,"

You are most certainly in my eyes. You meaning the ‘we’ you are referencing.

and we're not trying to find things to disprove "OS 012." On the contrary, we (most of us, anyway) see problems with "OS 012," and we feel compelled to point out the problems so that you have constructive feedback to either refine the idea, or so that you know to abandon it in favor of other ideas that might work better.

Well that I certainly appreciate and indeed salute you for your assistance. That is why I am here, to refine the idea. Thank you.

If I'm wrong about this, then somebody call me on it, but that's certainly been my motivation.

If that truly is your motivation, then you Wayne, are indeed a gem. Please let’s continue our exchange. Let me catch up a bit before you respond.


Bubblefish
 
***** ILLEGAL MOVE *****
***** PLEASE RESUBMIT LOGICALLY VALID DATA *****
***** ILLEGAL MOVE *****
sorry Zep, cleary the North Action move provides valid support, as it has since the game's inception, and hailed by all of it's master players.

and you defaulted your move, so now of course on to

turningham green
 
Jee-BUZ! All those posts - and I bet he still hasn't managed even one correct objective statement, has he?

Ignore is fun.

Luckily, all we need to is sit back and let Rome make a fool of himself.

Carry on!

Thus, when confronted with reality, Z too sees the subjective value and comfort in the previous ramblings of PV, and like PV was, Z has now become. Submitting no arguments, no further rationalizations, let PV's torch be proudly past onto Z, proud self proclaimed magician, manipulator of people, speaker of no truths.

BF
 
Since Rome loves his Wikipedia so much, let's see what the Wiki has to say about Beauty:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beauty

The subjective experience of "beauty" often involves the interpretation of some entity as being in balance and harmony with nature.

(emphasis mine)

Even Wikipedia recognizes that beauty is a subjective experience.

(Of course, if Rome has finally conceded this simplest of points in the many, many, MANY posts above, please accept my apologies for persisting in this point. But if you can't even get the basic distinction between subjective and objective correct, how can you manage to make finer distinctions between even more vague categories?)
 
Since Rome loves his Wikipedia so much, let's see what the Wiki has to say about Beauty:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beauty



(emphasis mine)

Even Wikipedia recognizes that beauty is a subjective experience.

o brother, sorry, zaay, wikipedia doesnt take a stance on philosophy, but that same article you mentioned also denoted OBJECTIVE charicteristics of beauty

The characterization of a person as “beautiful”, whether on an individual basis or by community consensus, is often based on some combination of inner beauty, which includes psychological factors such as personality, intelligence, grace, and elegance, and *outer* beauty, which includes physical factors, such as health, youthfulness, symmetry, averageness, and complexion.

interesting how you only saw what you wanted to see, eh? Isnt it interesting how magick works?



BF
 
Beauty is both an objective event and a subjective experience. I find the harmony that reflects beauty IS found in objective beauty to be profound.

If your thinking in two values, you will miss it.
 
But if you can't even get the basic distinction between subjective and objective correct, how can you manage to make finer distinctions between even more vague categories?)

indeed, and if your understandings of the distinctions produce contradictions in reality, how could you really be able to understand anything objective or subjective?

Naturally, when one has confusion at the heart of their distinctions, they produce irrationality, inconsistancy, and severly limit thier number of rationalizations in arguments, thus resorting to opinion chants in their final hour.
 
simply consult the STANDARD usage in the dictionary for symmetry

http://www.answers.com/symmetry&r=67


1.) Exact correspondence of form and constituent configuration on opposite sides of a dividing line or plane or about a center or an axis. See synonyms at proportion.
2.) A relationship of characteristic correspondence, equivalence, or identity among constituents of an entity or between different entities: the narrative symmetry of the novel.
3.) Beauty as a result of balance or harmonious arrangement.
So you've introduced two more subjective terms. How would you objectively measure the harmoniousness of a face, for example?

And be careful with your definitios of "balance"; the physical definition of an even distribution of weight ensuring stability is not going to be particularly useful here, as we do not test whether a face is beautiful according to whether or not it tends to fall off.
 
Not only is symmetry beautiful, but from symmetry, one can infer 'synergy'.

OS 012 defines synergy as "all sides contribute, and all sides win the collective output of all contributing". Note how in a perfect symmetrical order, all sides do indeed contribute to that beauty, and beauty is the output of all contributing.
It's a pity it doesn't define synergy in the same way as the rest of the English speaking world. It would avoid a lot of confusion.
 

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