Hi all, I'm new here i late to this thread, so sorry for dragging it up to the top.
Before reading this thread, if you asked me to name the closest number to 1, without being equal to it, I would have said .9999….& I still would after reading it.
I’m no mathematician, but one proof here I can understand & question is:
"1/3 = .3 rec
Multiply both by 3 to get
3/3 = .9 rec
3/3 is equal to 1
Therefore
1 = .9 rec"
I think this assumption is flawed:
3(.333…)=.999...
since you have to be able to start multiplying from the low end of the number in case you have to round up.
For example, we know:
3(.33333)= .99999 and
3(.33334)= 1.00002, so
3(.333…)= ?
Since no matter where you start multiplying, from there are still an infinite number of 3’s left to go to the right, so the answer .999… is an assumption not taking into account the whole number.
I would suggest that 3(.33333…)=1.000, not .999…
My proof is:
1/3=.333…
so therefore 3(.333…)=1
Also, we know from dividing 1/3, that no matter where you stop, there's a remainder left that is a 1 in the last digit position. Taken into account when multiplying, I think it's safe to assume that if you "could" multiply out the infinity of 3's, it would be equivalent to the remainder, thus rounding the .9999... up to 1.0000